Questions (Latest 2026-2027) by LECDEN
Question 1
A client with a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin receives a
prescription for cephalexin 500 mg by mouth twice daily. Which action
should the nurse take?
A) Give with prescribed antihistamine
B) Administer the medication as prescribed
C) Contact the healthcare provider
D) Monitor the client for a rash or hives
Correct Answer: C) Contact the healthcare provider
Rationale: Given the serious penicillin allergy, prior authorization with the
provider is essential before administration due to the risk of anaphylaxis.
Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin with cross-sensitivity risk in
clients with a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin .
Question 2
A client who uses a transdermal contraceptive patch calls the clinic because
she forgot to apply a new patch three days ago. Which instruction should
the nurse provide?
A) Wait until the last day of your next menstrual period to apply the patch
B) Apply the new patch today and use a backup method for 7 days
C) If a pregnancy test is negative, apply the next patch immediately
D) Wait until Sunday to apply the new patch and use the same site
Correct Answer: B) Apply the new patch today and use a backup
method for 7 days
,Rationale: If a transdermal contraceptive patch is forgotten for 3 days or
more, a new patch should be applied immediately and a backup
contraceptive method should be used for 7 days to prevent pregnancy .
Question 3
The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client prescribed gabapentin
300 mg by mouth three times daily for postherpetic neuralgia. Which
symptom should the nurse tell the client to report to the healthcare
provider?
A) Sexual dysfunction
B) Gastric irritation
C) Rapid weight gain
D) Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: B) Gastric irritation
Rationale: Gastric irritation, though less common than neurologic side effects,
can signal intolerance or predispose to GI bleeding, especially in older adults
or those on other GI-risk medications. The nurse should instruct the client to
report persistent GI symptoms promptly .
Question 4
A client taking atorvastatin develops an increased serum creatine
phosphokinase (CK) level. The nurse should assess the client for the onset
of which problem?
A) Muscle tenderness
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Excessive bruising
D) Peripheral edema
, Correct Answer: A) Muscle tenderness
Rationale: An elevated CK in a client on a statin strongly suggests muscle
injury. Statins can precipitate myopathy, which presents as muscle pain or
tenderness and, in severe cases, rhabdomyolysis. The nurse should specifically
assess for muscle symptoms to catch complications early .
Question 5
An increase in which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that a
prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk
for coronary artery disease?
A) LDL (Low-density lipoprotein)
B) Triglycerides
C) HDL (High-density lipoprotein)
D) VLDL (Very low-density lipoprotein)
Correct Answer: C) HDL (High-density lipoprotein)
Rationale: The desired effect of statin therapy is to lower LDL and
triglycerides, but an especially beneficial effect is to increase levels of HDL,
which has a protective effect against coronary artery disease. Monitoring for
increased HDL confirms positive medication effects .
Question 6
The nurse administers risedronate to a client with osteoporosis at 0700. The
client asks for a glass of milk to drink with the medication. Which action
should the nurse take?
A) Instruct the client that it is necessary to take nothing but water with the
medication