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Exam 2: NU110 / NU 110 (Latest 2026 / 2027) Integrated Human Sciences | 100% Correct Questions & Answers - Galen

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Exam 2: NU110 / NU 110 (Latest 2026 / 2027) Integrated Human Sciences | 100% Correct Questions & Answers - Galen During ventricular contraction, the AV valves close to: A. speed up the action potential as it moves through the conduction system. B. prevent the backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria. C. enhance drainage of the coronary veins. D. push blood into the venae cava. B. prevent the backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria. The purpose of the left heart is to A. receive oxygenated blood and pump it to all organs of the body. B. pump blood into the pulmonary artery. C. pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation. D. receive blood from the venae cava. A. receive oxygenated blood and pump it to all organs of the body. Which step is next in the pathway of blood flow through the heart? Pulmonary trunk to pulmonary arteries to pulmonary capillaries to pulmonary veins to: A. pulmonic semilunar valve. B. left atrium. C. right atrium. D. aorta. B. left atrium. The pacemaker of the heart is the A. SA node. B. AV node. C. bundle of His. D. Purkinje fibers. A. SA node. Cardiac impulse slows as it moves through the AV node into the bundle of His. The slowing down allows A. time for the ventricles to fill during the atrial contraction. B. blood pressure to be maintained. C. the flow of blood to slow to an acceptable rate. D. automaticity and rhythmicity to occur. A. time for the ventricles to fill during the atrial contraction. During ventricular systole: A. the atria contract and pump blood into the ventricles. B. the AV valves are open and the ventricles are relaxed. C. the ventricles contract and eject blood. D. the semilunar valves remain closed. C. the ventricles contract and eject blood. Which of the following is a consequence of sympathetic nerve stimulation? A. Increased myocardial force of contraction B. Peripheral vasodilation C. Decreased heart rate D. All of the above A. Increased myocardial force of contraction Spongy bone A. has a microscopic structure unit known as the haversian system. B. is found primarily in the shafts of long bones and the outer surfaces of bones. C. can be found in the epiphyses of long bones. D. is composed of tightly packed cells and provides the strength for bones. C. can be found in the epiphyses of long bones. The axial skeleton A includes bones of the cranium. B. includes the pelvic girdle C. has more bones than the appendicular skeleton. D. is where you would find epiphyseal discs A includes bones of the cranium. Myosin Which nerve innervates the diaphragm? A. IIntercostal nerve B. Sciatic C.Phrenic D. Cranial nerve XI C.Phrenic Surfactants are found within the... а.pulmonary capillaries. b. trachea. C. alveoli. pleural space. C. alveoli. The central chemoreceptors are primarily sensitive to blood levels of n. b. carbon dioxide and [H+]. C. hemoglobin. d. potassium. b. carbon dioxide and [H+]. The epiglottis , glottis , and vocal cords.... a . vibrate on exhalation , causing b . Protect the airway C. are structures of the larynx . d . are composed of tough cartilage . b . Protect the airway Hypoventilation is most apt to... A. increase blood pH. B. induce acidosis. C. Induce alkalosis. D. cause hypocapnea. B. induce acidosis. Which event occurs first? a. The diaphragm contracts. b. Air moves into the lungs. c. The phrenic nerve fires. d. The inspiratory neurons in the medulla fire. d. The inspiratory neurons in the medulla fire. The mitral and the bicuspid valves... A. are semilunar valves. B. are both located on the right side of the heart. C. "see" only unoxygenated blood. D. are the same valves. D. are the same valves. Which of the following is least true of the aortic valve? A. It is also called the left semilunar valve. B. It "sees" oxygenated blood. C. Blood flows from the ventricle through this valve into the pulmonary artery. D.An incompetent aortic valve allows blood to leak from the aorta back into the left ventricle. C. Blood flows from the ventricle through this valve into the pulmonary artery. What happens during ventricular diastole? A. The ventricles are filling with blood. B. All semilunar valves are open. C. Both AV valves are closed. D. Blood is pumped to the lungs and systemic circulation. A. The ventricles are filling with blood. Which artery is most often used to evaluate the pulse? A. Carotid B. Brachial C. Femoral D. Radial D. Radial What is the artery that supplies the head and neck region? A. Jugular B. Axillary C. Portal D. Carotid D. Carotid Which of the following represents a correct direction of blood flow? A. Capillaries to arterioles to venules B. Arteries to arterioles to venules to capillaries C. Capillaries to venules to veins D. Arteries to veins to venules to capillaries C. Capillaries to venules to veins If the blood vessels of the skin dilate, the person appears A. jaundiced. B. flushed. C. cyanotic. D. pale and washed out. B. flushed What is the effect of shivering? A. Increases heat production B. Increases heat loss C. Causes the blood vessels of the skin to dilate D. Decreases sweating A. Increases heat production Which of the following bones is not located in the lower limbs? A. Femur B. Tibia C. Ulna D. Tarsal C. Ulna What is the name of the cord of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone? A. Ligament B. Tendon C. Linea alba D. Cartilage B. Tendon Which of the following is associated with the conservation of heat? A. The person appears flushed. B. The person sweats. C. Melanin is secreted. D. Blood vessels constrict. D. Blood vessels constrict. What is it called: The person moves his left thigh away from the midline of the body? A. Abduction B. Flexion C. Adduction D. Inversion A. Abduction Which blood vessel carries unoxygenated blood? A. Pulmonary artery B. Aorta C. Carotid D. Circle of Willis A. Pulmonary artery Acetylcholine is released from the neuron's membrane in response to the: A. nerve impulse. B. binding of the myosin heads to actin. C. release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D. inactivation of acetylcholinesterase. A. nerve impulse. what can a decrease in subcutaneous fat and muscle laxity cause a) wrinkles b) sagging of skin around abdomen and breasts c) skin becomes cool to the touch d) two or more are correct d) both A and B are correct skin becoming cool to the touch can be a sign of decrease in blood supply what blood pressure is considered hypertension a) 119/80 b) 148/93 c) 100/73 d) 98/64 b) 148/93 what does an increase in capillary fragility cause a) uneven skin b) dry coarse and thin hair c) bruising d) hair loss c) bruising What is the top number in blood pressure? a) diastolic b) systolic b) systolic diastolic is the bottom number what is included in a clinical measurement a) pulse b) blood pressure c) temperature d) all of the above d) all of the above also includes oxygen saturation and respiration rate 130/87 is considered a) hypertension 1 b) hypertension 2 c) normal blood pressure d) hypotension a) hypertension 1 hypertension 2 is 140s systolic what is part of vitals a) pain b) blood pressure c) questioning the patient d) two of these are correct d) two of these are correct pain is part of vital signs systolic blood pressure means a) minimum amount of pressure exerted when the heart relaxes b) maximum amount of pressure exerted when heart contracts c) minimum amount of pressure exerted when heart contracts d) maximum amount of pressure exerted when the heart relaxes b) maximum amount of pressure exerted when the heart contracts a is diastolic what is considered a core level temperature a) oral b) temporal c) axilla d) tympanic d) tympanic rectum is also considered core. Oral, temporal and axilla are surface level locations to get a temperature what is considered a normal respiration rate a) 17 b) 11 c) 10 d) 22 a) 17 range is from 12-20 breaths per minute a patient that had a heart rate of 120 would be considered to have a) tachycardia b) bradycardia c) normal heart rate d) tachypnea a) tachycardia because a heart rate higher than 100 is considered tachy - normal HR is 60-100 - bradycardia is HR less than 60 - tachypnea is resp. rate greater than 20 orthostatic hypotension means a) patient goes from sitting to standing and blood pressure increases b) patient goes from standing to laying and blood pressure increases c) patient goes from sitting to standing and blood pressure decreases d) patient goes from laying on side to laying on their back and the blood pressure decreases c) patient goes from sitting to standing and blood pressure decreases what does ABCDE stand for a) abnormal, border irregularity, color variation, diameter less than 6mm, evolving changes in color, shape and size b) asymmetry of shape, border irregularity, color variation within one lesion, diameter greater than 6mm, evolving changes in shape, size, itching, bleeding c) asymmetry of shape, irregularity, color variation within one lesion, diameter less than 6mm, evolving changes in color, shape, size, bleeding d) assessment, border irregularity, color variation within one lesion, diameter less than 6mm, evolving changes in color, shape, size, bleeding b) Asymmetry of shape, Border irregularity, Color variation within one lesion, Diameter greater than 6mm, Evolving changes in shape, size, itching, bleeding ( color, elevation, crusting) what is considered a primary lesion a) crust b) scale c) ulcer d) tumor d) tumor a, b and c are all secondary skin lesions local warmth of the skin is considered a) fever b) hyperthyroidism c) inflammation d) hypothyroidism c) inflammation a and b are generalized warmth d would lead to skin being cool presence of turgor would allow the nurse to assume the patient a) has a fever b) dehydrated c) inflammation d)edema b) dehydration if testing the depth of edema on a patient and it has a prolonged response it would be consider a) 4+ b) 5+ c) 2+ d) 1+ a) +4 1+ would be rapid skin response 2+ would be 1-5 second response 3+ would also be a prolonged response 5+ does not exist what is edema a) large bruise b) overgrowth of melanocytes c) sac of fluid d) build up of fluid in tissue d) build up of fluid in tissue a- would be ecchymosis b-would be a mole d- cyst how do you measure a wound a) length x width b) length x depth c) length x width x depth d) length c) length x width x depth what stage of a wound would you see break in the skin a) stage 1 b) stage 2 c) stage 3 d) stage 4 b) stage 2 stage 1- redness, non- blanchable stage 2- break in the skin stage 3- fascia ( separation of fat from muscle) stage 4- down to the bone what is it called when there is a complete absence of nails a) paronychia b) clubbing nail c) koilonychia d) anonychia d) anonychia paronychia- inflammation of tissue around the nails clubbing nail- angle is more than 180 degrees koilonychia- nails are spoon shaped how many seconds is a normal capillary refill a) 1-2 seconds b) 2-3 seconds c) 3-5 seconds d) 0 seconds b) 2-3 seconds how can you tell if something has become infected a) smell b) looking at it c) redness d) all of the above d) all of the above a decrease in oil can cause a) dry hair b) decrease in nail growth c) gray or white colored hair d) increase in skin cancer a) dry hair b-decrease in nail growth is from a decrease in peripheral blood supply c-gray or white colored hair is from a decrease in melanin d- increase in skin cancer is from a decrease in immunocompetent you are taking care of a female patient who has a lot of hair on their chest, you would assume they a) have a decrease in testosterone levels b) have a decrease in estrogen levels c) have skin cancer d) autoimmune disease b) decrease in estrogen levels a patient has many white patches on their skin. they could have a(n) a) irritation b) autoimmune diease c) acne d) irregular moles b) autoimmune disease ( or even a thyroid disease) a- Irritation is common in lichenification c-acne common in telangiectasia d- irregular moles are common for moles A patient has a large bruise like lesion. they most likely have a) ecchymosis b) keloid c) Erythema d) intertrigo a) ecchymosis b- keloid; hypertrophic scar beyond wound margins c- Erythema; redness occurring in patches of different shapes + size d- Intertrigo; dermatitis of overlying surfaces of the skin what are secondary skin lesions. select all that apply a) fissure b) scar c) papule d) ulcer e) vesicle a,b,d ( fissure, scar, ulcer ) what would you expect to find in a patient you are taking care of that has a wound infection. select all that apply a) pain b) fever c) swelling of wound d) pus or discharge e) smell all of them are correct what diseases or problems would all the nurse to indicate there is a systemic problem. select all that apply a) pallor b) jaundice c) vertigo d) cyanosis e) skin cancer a, b,d are correct ( pallor, jaundice, cyanosis ) a patient is cyanotic when you walk into the room, what body system would be a reason for it a) immune disease b) musculoskeletal disease c) respiratory disease d) renal disease c) respiratory disease- decrease in oxygen if you are testing a patients sense of touch such as something being hot cold, or if there is pain, that falls under which pattern a) elimination pattern b) self-perception pattern c) value-belief pattern d) cognitive- perceptul pattern d) cognitive- perceptual pattern a- you would be asking the patient about skin problems like edema, dehydration, itching b- assessing any feelings the patient would have related to having skin problems c- assess the patients cultural or religious beliefs that would influence their thoughts what would you find to have an effect on skin. select all that apply a) decrease in subcutaneous tissue b) decrease in blood supply c) increase in keratin d) decrease in apocrine or sebaceous glands e) decrease in immunocompetent a,b,d,e are all correct UV exposure can lead to a) wrinkles b) decrease in nail growth c) decrease in rosy appearance d) skin becomes cool to the touch a) wrinkles ( premature aging, skin cancer due to tanning beds being able to cause the same damage as the sun) which cardiovascular diseases can cause skin problems. select all that apply. a) addisons disease b) peripheral vascular disease c) anemia d) thromboangitis obliterans e) venous ulcers b,d,e are all correct a is an endocrine disease c is a hematologic disease what falls under the assessment of pressure ulcers .select all that apply a) measure b) signs of infection c) size d) location e) color of wound bed all of them are correct what would you palpate a wound for during an assessment a) smell b) sight c) dryness d) drainage d) drainage ( appearance and pain) both a and b would be inspection dryness would be an assessment for hair and scalp a nail assessment consists of.. select all that apply a) cuticles being smooth b) nails being smooth and transparent c) convex of nail bed being 180 degrees d) capillary refill a,b,d are all correct c is wrong because you would want nail bed to be 160 degrees a skin inspection consists of.... select all that apply a) color b) moisture c) temperature d) turgor e) hair over the body a,b,c,d are correct e would fall into an assessment of the hair and scalp an increase in ___________ can lead to bruising a) melanocytes b) keratin c) muscle laxity d) capillary fragility d) capillary fragility a- increase in melanocytes can lead to pigment accumulation b- increase in keratin can lead to longitudinal ridging a low oxygen concentration in the blood can be a) hypoxia b) hypoxemia c) tachypnea d) bradypnea b) hypoxia a- seen by cyanosis when there is low oxygen concentration in the tissue c- tachpnea means a high respiration rate d- is a low respiration rate inspiration means a) expelling carbon dioxide from the lungs b) in normal range for a respiration rate c) in normal range for heart rate d) intake of air by the lungs in order to oxygenate body tissue and support cellular function d) intake of air by the lungs in order to oxygenate body tissue and support cellular function a- would be expiration b- respiration rate within normal limits of 12-20 c- normal range of heart rate of 60-100 what term would the nurse use to describe a flat, discolored lesion that is 0.7 cm a) patch b) macule c) plaque d) wheal a) patch because it is greater than 0.5cm b- if the lesion is less than 0.5cm it is considered a macule c- elevated superficial lesion filled with purulent fluid d- firm edematous irregular shaped area. could last a few hours you are caring for a patient who has COPD. which oxygen level would you consider normal or within range for them a) 85 b) 97 c) 90 d) 100 c) 90 because they have a lower oxygen saturation range which is from high 80s ( 88-92%) a- low b and d would be for a patient who was within normal range if a patient has a weak or diminished pulse, you would give them a a) 0 b) +1 c) +2 d) +4 b) +1 a- pulse is absent or nopalpable c- pulse that is normal d- pulse that is bounding ( can see it by looking at the carotid or jugular) +3 would be a pulse that is increased or strong what test would you do for a superficial fungal infection a) you wouldn't need to do a test b) wood lamp test c) KOH test d) coagulation study c) KOH test b- would be used to keep room dark if UV light needed to be used d- tests for a patient with purpura a 53 year old patient has a blood pressure that decreased from 118/74 to 100/68 and a heart rate that increased from 78 to 135. would you be worried ? a) no b) yes b) yes, because the heart needs to get blood pumping throughout the rest of the body causing the heart rate to increase which patient is at a greater risk for getting a pressure injury a) 28 year old quadriplegic b) 33 year old who works out every day c) 87 year old who is independent d) all of them a) 23 year old quadriplegic because they aren't moving so they have a greater chance of pressure injury from friction or moisture where is the best place to take a temperature on a patient who is sweating and has a fever a) axillary b) rectum c) oral d) temporal b) rectum what is a normal range for a bod temperature a) 96.8-100.4 b) 98.6-102.2 c) 97.0-100 d) 96.0-100.1 a) 96.8-100.4 signs that a patient has cellulitis is a) rashes b) lesions c) itching d) all of the above d) all of the above what questions would you ask a patient about their skin. select all that apply a) are you out in the sun frequently? b) do you use sunscreen? c) have you noticed any change in your skin related to sweating or swelling? d) do you have any pain associated with the skin problem? e) do you have any joint pain? f) are there any treatments you would be opposed to using? all of these are correct what disease would the nurse most likely assume is the problem if the patient has an increase in sweating, warm skin, thin nails and a persistent flush a) hypothyroidism b) hypoparathyroidism c) hyperthyroidism d) hyperpituitarism c) hyperthyroidism a- skin would be pale or yellow, cold, dry. hair would be dry, coarse and brittle b- opaque to brittle nails. coarse or sparse hair d- coarsened skin and deeper lines. increase in acne if you are taking care of a patient who has a lot of bruises on them all at different healing stages what would you think? a) angioma b) abuse c) hematoma d) ecchymosis b) abuse a- tumor consisting of blood or lymph nodes c- extravasation of blood that causes visible swelling d- large bruise like lesion from extra blood What is an excisional biopsy used for? a) full thickness of skin for a diagnosis b) cosmetic results c) incision made in a lesion, used for large specimen d) used for superficial lesions b) when a good cosmetic result is desired a- punch biopsy, which provides a full thickness of skin for diagnostic purpose c- incisional biopsy, which is a wedge shaped incision made in a lesion when it is too large for an excisional biopsy d- shave biopsy, used for superficial lesions or when a small sample is needed. ( Shaved, Superficial, Small) a culture of a skin lesion is used to identify... select all that apply a) fungal infection b) allergies c) virus d) bacterial a,c,d are correct Scraping or swabbing is used to obtain specimen for a fungal infection vesicle or bulla and exudates are taken from the lesion for a virus culture is obtained from intact pustules, bullae or abscesses for bacteria a patch test is used to determine allergies which cause skin lesions

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Exam 2: NU110 / NU 110 (Latest )
Integrated Human Sciences | 100% Correct
Questions & Answers - Galen


During ventricular contraction, the AV valves close to:

A. speed up the action potential as it moves through the conduction system.

B. prevent the backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria.
C. enhance drainage of the coronary veins.

D. push blood into the venae cava.

B. prevent the backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria.




The purpose of the left heart is to

A. receive oxygenated blood and pump it to all organs of the body.
B. pump blood into the pulmonary artery.

C. pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation.

D. receive blood from the venae cava.
A. receive oxygenated blood and pump it to all organs of the body.




Which step is next in the pathway of blood flow through the heart? Pulmonary trunk to
pulmonary arteries to pulmonary capillaries to pulmonary veins to:

A. pulmonic semilunar valve.

B. left atrium.
C. right atrium.
D. aorta.

,B. left atrium.




The pacemaker of the heart is the
A. SA node.

B. AV node.

C. bundle of His.

D. Purkinje fibers.

A. SA node.




Cardiac impulse slows as it moves through the AV node into the bundle of His. The slowing
down allows

A. time for the ventricles to fill during the atrial contraction.
B. blood pressure to be maintained.

C. the flow of blood to slow to an acceptable rate.

D. automaticity and rhythmicity to occur.

A. time for the ventricles to fill during the atrial contraction.




During ventricular systole:
A. the atria contract and pump blood into the ventricles.

B. the AV valves are open and the ventricles are relaxed.

C. the ventricles contract and eject blood.

D. the semilunar valves remain closed.

C. the ventricles contract and eject blood.

, Which of the following is a consequence of sympathetic nerve stimulation?

A. Increased myocardial force of contraction

B. Peripheral vasodilation
C. Decreased heart rate

D. All of the above

A. Increased myocardial force of contraction




Spongy bone

A. has a microscopic structure unit known as the haversian system.

B. is found primarily in the shafts of long bones and the outer surfaces of bones.
C. can be found in the epiphyses of long bones.

D. is composed of tightly packed cells and provides the strength for bones.

C. can be found in the epiphyses of long bones.




The axial skeleton

A includes bones of the
cranium.

B. includes the pelvic girdle

C. has more bones than the appendicular skeleton.

D. is where you would find epiphyseal discs

A includes bones of the

cranium.

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