NEW VERSION APEA 3P PRIMARY CARE NURSE
PRACTITIONER – 200-QUESTION PRACTICE
EXAM (TEST BANK STYLE) LATEST UPDATE
THIS YEAR.PDF
Overview & Coverage:
This original 200-question practice exam is designed to reflect the breadth and cognitive
level of the APEA 3P (Primary Care NP) assessment. Questions span:
Health promotion, screening, and preventive care across the lifespan
Acute conditions (ENT, respiratory, GU, skin, MSK, neuro, pediatric emergencies)
Chronic disease management (hypertension, diabetes, thyroid, heart failure,
COPD/asthma, GERD/PUD, dementia, osteoporosis, gout, RA, AS, mental health,
HIV, SLE)
Women’s, men’s, and sexual health (contraception, PCOS, endometriosis,
menopause, BPH, hypogonadism, STIs)
Pediatrics and geriatrics (milestones, developmental delays, immunizations,
growth issues, falls, polypharmacy, incontinence)
Pharmacology and therapeutics (first-line regimens, adverse effects, interactions,
special populations)
Diagnostics and professional practice (lab/imaging selection, VTE workup, TB,
informed consent, IPV, antibiotic stewardship, cultural competence, motivational
interviewing, interprofessional collaboration, safety/quality)
SECTION 1 – Health Promotion, Screening, and Preventive Care (Q1–25)
Q1. According to major U.S. guidelines, at what age should average-risk adults begin
routine colorectal cancer screening?
A. 35 years
B. 40 years
C. 45 years
D. 50 years
E. 55 years
C. 45 years
Current guidelines recommend starting at 45 for average risk.
,Q2. Which of the following is the recommended primary screening test for cervical cancer in
adults aged 30–65 years?
A. Pap test every year
B. HPV testing alone every 5 years or co-testing every 5 years
C. Colposcopy every 3 years
D. Pelvic ultrasound annually
E. No screening after age 30
B. HPV testing alone every 5 years or co-testing every 5 years
30–65: primary HPV q5y or co-test q5y (or Pap q3y).
Q3. A 52-year-old man with no symptoms and average risk asks about prostate cancer
screening. What is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Order PSA immediately without discussion
B. Decline all screening
C. Discuss risks/benefits of PSA screening and offer shared decision-making
D. Order CT pelvis
E. Refer for biopsy
C. Discuss risks/benefits of PSA screening and offer shared decision-making
Guidelines support individualized decision-making for many men 55–69; some start earlier
based on risk.
Q4. Which immunization is recommended for all adults ≥65 years regardless of risk factors?
A. Meningococcal
B. Pneumococcal (PCV20 or PCV15 + PPSV23 per schedule)
C. Varicella only if never had chickenpox
D. HPV
E. MMR
B. Pneumococcal (PCV20 or PCV15 + PPSV23 per schedule)
Pneumococcal vaccination is routine at ≥65.
,Q5. A 28-year-old woman with no prior vaccines presents for a wellness visit. Which
vaccine is routinely recommended if she is not pregnant?
A. Live attenuated influenza nasal spray only
B. Tdap, HPV (if not completed), and seasonal influenza
C. MMR only if she plans pregnancy now
D. No vaccines needed at this age
E. Pneumococcal
B. Tdap, HPV (if not completed), and seasonal influenza
Tdap once, HPV through 26 (or up to 45 via shared decision-making), annual flu.
Q6. Which screening is recommended at least once for all adults aged 18–79 years
regardless of risk?
A. Hepatitis C antibody
B. Hepatitis A IgM
C. CMV IgG
D. Toxoplasma IgG
E. HSV-2 serology
A. Hepatitis C antibody
One-time HCV screening for all adults 18–79.
Q7. A 45-year-old man with BMI 31 kg/m² and no symptoms should be screened for which
condition?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Type 1 diabetes only
C. Celiac disease
D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Hyperthyroidism
A. Type 2 diabetes
Obesity and age ≥35 warrant diabetes screening.
Q8. Which of the following is the preferred method for lipid screening in adults?
, A. Non-fasting total cholesterol only
B. Fasting or non-fasting lipid panel including LDL calculation
C. Triglycerides only
D. HDL only
E. No screening unless symptomatic
B. Fasting or non-fasting lipid panel including LDL calculation
Lipid panels guide ASCVD risk assessment.
Q9. A 60-year-old man with a 40 pack-year smoking history currently smokes. Which
screening is indicated?
A. Annual low-dose CT for lung cancer
B. Annual chest X-ray
C. No screening
D. PET scan every 2 years
E. Sputum cytology
A. Annual low-dose CT for lung cancer
LDCT for eligible current/former heavy smokers.
Q10. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a well-child visit?
A. Prescribe antibiotics prophylactically
B. Monitor growth/development, provide vaccines, and offer anticipatory guidance
C. Order imaging routinely
D. Perform invasive procedures
E. Avoid discussing behavior
B. Monitor growth/development, provide vaccines, and offer anticipatory guidance
Preventive pediatric care focuses on development and safety.
Q11. At what age is the first MMR vaccine typically given?
A. At birth
B. 2 months
C. 6 months
PRACTITIONER – 200-QUESTION PRACTICE
EXAM (TEST BANK STYLE) LATEST UPDATE
THIS YEAR.PDF
Overview & Coverage:
This original 200-question practice exam is designed to reflect the breadth and cognitive
level of the APEA 3P (Primary Care NP) assessment. Questions span:
Health promotion, screening, and preventive care across the lifespan
Acute conditions (ENT, respiratory, GU, skin, MSK, neuro, pediatric emergencies)
Chronic disease management (hypertension, diabetes, thyroid, heart failure,
COPD/asthma, GERD/PUD, dementia, osteoporosis, gout, RA, AS, mental health,
HIV, SLE)
Women’s, men’s, and sexual health (contraception, PCOS, endometriosis,
menopause, BPH, hypogonadism, STIs)
Pediatrics and geriatrics (milestones, developmental delays, immunizations,
growth issues, falls, polypharmacy, incontinence)
Pharmacology and therapeutics (first-line regimens, adverse effects, interactions,
special populations)
Diagnostics and professional practice (lab/imaging selection, VTE workup, TB,
informed consent, IPV, antibiotic stewardship, cultural competence, motivational
interviewing, interprofessional collaboration, safety/quality)
SECTION 1 – Health Promotion, Screening, and Preventive Care (Q1–25)
Q1. According to major U.S. guidelines, at what age should average-risk adults begin
routine colorectal cancer screening?
A. 35 years
B. 40 years
C. 45 years
D. 50 years
E. 55 years
C. 45 years
Current guidelines recommend starting at 45 for average risk.
,Q2. Which of the following is the recommended primary screening test for cervical cancer in
adults aged 30–65 years?
A. Pap test every year
B. HPV testing alone every 5 years or co-testing every 5 years
C. Colposcopy every 3 years
D. Pelvic ultrasound annually
E. No screening after age 30
B. HPV testing alone every 5 years or co-testing every 5 years
30–65: primary HPV q5y or co-test q5y (or Pap q3y).
Q3. A 52-year-old man with no symptoms and average risk asks about prostate cancer
screening. What is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Order PSA immediately without discussion
B. Decline all screening
C. Discuss risks/benefits of PSA screening and offer shared decision-making
D. Order CT pelvis
E. Refer for biopsy
C. Discuss risks/benefits of PSA screening and offer shared decision-making
Guidelines support individualized decision-making for many men 55–69; some start earlier
based on risk.
Q4. Which immunization is recommended for all adults ≥65 years regardless of risk factors?
A. Meningococcal
B. Pneumococcal (PCV20 or PCV15 + PPSV23 per schedule)
C. Varicella only if never had chickenpox
D. HPV
E. MMR
B. Pneumococcal (PCV20 or PCV15 + PPSV23 per schedule)
Pneumococcal vaccination is routine at ≥65.
,Q5. A 28-year-old woman with no prior vaccines presents for a wellness visit. Which
vaccine is routinely recommended if she is not pregnant?
A. Live attenuated influenza nasal spray only
B. Tdap, HPV (if not completed), and seasonal influenza
C. MMR only if she plans pregnancy now
D. No vaccines needed at this age
E. Pneumococcal
B. Tdap, HPV (if not completed), and seasonal influenza
Tdap once, HPV through 26 (or up to 45 via shared decision-making), annual flu.
Q6. Which screening is recommended at least once for all adults aged 18–79 years
regardless of risk?
A. Hepatitis C antibody
B. Hepatitis A IgM
C. CMV IgG
D. Toxoplasma IgG
E. HSV-2 serology
A. Hepatitis C antibody
One-time HCV screening for all adults 18–79.
Q7. A 45-year-old man with BMI 31 kg/m² and no symptoms should be screened for which
condition?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Type 1 diabetes only
C. Celiac disease
D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Hyperthyroidism
A. Type 2 diabetes
Obesity and age ≥35 warrant diabetes screening.
Q8. Which of the following is the preferred method for lipid screening in adults?
, A. Non-fasting total cholesterol only
B. Fasting or non-fasting lipid panel including LDL calculation
C. Triglycerides only
D. HDL only
E. No screening unless symptomatic
B. Fasting or non-fasting lipid panel including LDL calculation
Lipid panels guide ASCVD risk assessment.
Q9. A 60-year-old man with a 40 pack-year smoking history currently smokes. Which
screening is indicated?
A. Annual low-dose CT for lung cancer
B. Annual chest X-ray
C. No screening
D. PET scan every 2 years
E. Sputum cytology
A. Annual low-dose CT for lung cancer
LDCT for eligible current/former heavy smokers.
Q10. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a well-child visit?
A. Prescribe antibiotics prophylactically
B. Monitor growth/development, provide vaccines, and offer anticipatory guidance
C. Order imaging routinely
D. Perform invasive procedures
E. Avoid discussing behavior
B. Monitor growth/development, provide vaccines, and offer anticipatory guidance
Preventive pediatric care focuses on development and safety.
Q11. At what age is the first MMR vaccine typically given?
A. At birth
B. 2 months
C. 6 months
