RNSG 1517 A MATERNITY 2027 LATEST
FINAL EXAM |ACTUAL REAL QUESTIONS
AND RELIABLE ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES |GUARANTEED PASS |A
GRADE PASS!!!
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment (Questions 1–20)
Question 1: A client's last menstrual period began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is the
estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A) December 3
B) December 10
C) December 17
D) January 3
Answer: C
Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP (March 10 → December 10) and add 7
days → December 17. This calculates a 280-day gestation from the LMP.
Question 2: Between which gestational weeks does fundal height measurement in centimeters most
accurately correlate with gestational age?
A) 12 to 16 weeks
B) 20 to 34 weeks
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,C) 36 to 40 weeks
D) Fundal height never correlates with gestational age
Answer: B
From approximately 20 to 34 weeks, fundal height in centimeters roughly equals gestational age in
weeks, making it a useful screening tool for fetal growth. After 34 weeks, the correlation becomes less
reliable due to fetal position and growth variability.
Question 3: The nurse is caring for a client at 18 weeks gestation who reports feeling "fluttering"
movements for the first time. This sensation is known as:
A) Ballottement
B) Lightening
C) Quickening
D) Braxton Hicks contractions
Answer: C
Quickening is the mother's first perception of fetal movement, typically felt between 16 and 20 weeks
gestation. It is considered a probable sign of pregnancy. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus felt
during pelvic examination; lightening is the descent of the fetal head into the pelvis.
Question 4: Which of the following is classified as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A) Positive serum hCG
B) Ballottement
C) Amenorrhea and nausea
D) Fetal heartbeat on ultrasound
Answer: C
Presumptive signs (amenorrhea, nausea, breast changes, fatigue, urinary frequency) are subjective and
can have other causes. Probable signs (positive hCG, ballottement, Chadwick's sign) are more objective.
Positive signs (fetal heartbeat, ultrasound visualization, fetal movement palpated by examiner) confirm
pregnancy.
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,Question 5: The primary purpose of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is to assess
risk for:
A) Preterm labor
B) Neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities
C) Postpartum hemorrhage
D) Gestational diabetes
Answer: B
MSAFP screening assesses the risk for neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly) and certain
chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., Down syndrome). It is typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks
gestation.
Question 6: A client at 30 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 150/98 mmHg and 2+
proteinuria on two occasions. This presentation is most consistent with:
A) Chronic hypertension only
B) Preeclampsia
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Normal pregnancy-induced changes
Answer: B
New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks gestation accompanied by proteinuria is diagnostic of
preeclampsia. Preeclampsia requires close monitoring and management to prevent progression to
eclampsia and other complications.
Question 7: Magnesium sulfate is administered to a client with severe preeclampsia primarily to:
A) Lower blood glucose levels
B) Prevent seizure activity (eclampsia)
C) Induce labor
D) Treat postpartum hemorrhage
Answer: B
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, Magnesium sulfate is used as an anticonvulsant in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia to prevent or control
seizure activity. It does not directly treat hypertension, though it may have a mild vasodilatory effect.
Question 8: A client at 32 weeks gestation with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which
finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A) Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
B) Urine output of 40 mL/hr
C) Deep tendon reflexes 3+
D) Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min
Answer: D
Magnesium toxicity causes respiratory depression (respiratory rate <12 breaths/min), loss of deep tendon
reflexes, and oliguria. The therapeutic range is 4-7 mEq/L. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for
magnesium toxicity. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min requires immediate intervention.
Question 9: A client at 28 weeks gestation with gestational diabetes is being educated about diet. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A) "I should eat three large meals and avoid snacks."
B) "I should distribute carbohydrates evenly throughout the day."
C) "I can eat unlimited amounts of protein and fat."
D) "I should avoid all carbohydrates."
Answer: B
Clients with gestational diabetes should distribute carbohydrate intake evenly across meals and snacks to
prevent hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia. Three large meals can cause glucose spikes; complete
carbohydrate restriction is not recommended as it is essential for fetal development.
Question 10: The nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which finding is consistent with a
normal pregnancy at this stage?
A) Fundal height at the umbilicus
B) Fetal heart rate audible with Doppler
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FINAL EXAM |ACTUAL REAL QUESTIONS
AND RELIABLE ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES |GUARANTEED PASS |A
GRADE PASS!!!
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment (Questions 1–20)
Question 1: A client's last menstrual period began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is the
estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A) December 3
B) December 10
C) December 17
D) January 3
Answer: C
Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP (March 10 → December 10) and add 7
days → December 17. This calculates a 280-day gestation from the LMP.
Question 2: Between which gestational weeks does fundal height measurement in centimeters most
accurately correlate with gestational age?
A) 12 to 16 weeks
B) 20 to 34 weeks
1|Page
,C) 36 to 40 weeks
D) Fundal height never correlates with gestational age
Answer: B
From approximately 20 to 34 weeks, fundal height in centimeters roughly equals gestational age in
weeks, making it a useful screening tool for fetal growth. After 34 weeks, the correlation becomes less
reliable due to fetal position and growth variability.
Question 3: The nurse is caring for a client at 18 weeks gestation who reports feeling "fluttering"
movements for the first time. This sensation is known as:
A) Ballottement
B) Lightening
C) Quickening
D) Braxton Hicks contractions
Answer: C
Quickening is the mother's first perception of fetal movement, typically felt between 16 and 20 weeks
gestation. It is considered a probable sign of pregnancy. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus felt
during pelvic examination; lightening is the descent of the fetal head into the pelvis.
Question 4: Which of the following is classified as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A) Positive serum hCG
B) Ballottement
C) Amenorrhea and nausea
D) Fetal heartbeat on ultrasound
Answer: C
Presumptive signs (amenorrhea, nausea, breast changes, fatigue, urinary frequency) are subjective and
can have other causes. Probable signs (positive hCG, ballottement, Chadwick's sign) are more objective.
Positive signs (fetal heartbeat, ultrasound visualization, fetal movement palpated by examiner) confirm
pregnancy.
2|Page
,Question 5: The primary purpose of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is to assess
risk for:
A) Preterm labor
B) Neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities
C) Postpartum hemorrhage
D) Gestational diabetes
Answer: B
MSAFP screening assesses the risk for neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly) and certain
chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., Down syndrome). It is typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks
gestation.
Question 6: A client at 30 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 150/98 mmHg and 2+
proteinuria on two occasions. This presentation is most consistent with:
A) Chronic hypertension only
B) Preeclampsia
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Normal pregnancy-induced changes
Answer: B
New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks gestation accompanied by proteinuria is diagnostic of
preeclampsia. Preeclampsia requires close monitoring and management to prevent progression to
eclampsia and other complications.
Question 7: Magnesium sulfate is administered to a client with severe preeclampsia primarily to:
A) Lower blood glucose levels
B) Prevent seizure activity (eclampsia)
C) Induce labor
D) Treat postpartum hemorrhage
Answer: B
3|Page
, Magnesium sulfate is used as an anticonvulsant in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia to prevent or control
seizure activity. It does not directly treat hypertension, though it may have a mild vasodilatory effect.
Question 8: A client at 32 weeks gestation with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which
finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A) Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
B) Urine output of 40 mL/hr
C) Deep tendon reflexes 3+
D) Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min
Answer: D
Magnesium toxicity causes respiratory depression (respiratory rate <12 breaths/min), loss of deep tendon
reflexes, and oliguria. The therapeutic range is 4-7 mEq/L. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for
magnesium toxicity. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min requires immediate intervention.
Question 9: A client at 28 weeks gestation with gestational diabetes is being educated about diet. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A) "I should eat three large meals and avoid snacks."
B) "I should distribute carbohydrates evenly throughout the day."
C) "I can eat unlimited amounts of protein and fat."
D) "I should avoid all carbohydrates."
Answer: B
Clients with gestational diabetes should distribute carbohydrate intake evenly across meals and snacks to
prevent hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia. Three large meals can cause glucose spikes; complete
carbohydrate restriction is not recommended as it is essential for fetal development.
Question 10: The nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which finding is consistent with a
normal pregnancy at this stage?
A) Fundal height at the umbilicus
B) Fetal heart rate audible with Doppler
4|Page
