PEDS EOR (END OF ROTATION) EXAM
PEDIATRICS PRACTICE GUIDE 2026–2027
120 Practice Questions with Correct Answers & Clinical Rationales
Already Graded A+ Style Review | Aligned to PAEA Pediatrics EOR Blueprint Themes
Medicine & PA Studies | PAEA EOR Pediatrics | 120 items (100 scored + 20 pretest reference)
Key Domains: Health Maintenance and Prevention, Acute Illness and Injury Management, Behavioral and Developmental Pediatrics,
Pediatric Pharmacology, Neonatal Care, and Chronic Disease Management in Children
Introduction
This structured Pediatrics End of Rotation (EOR) practice format for 2026–2027 provides high-quality exam-style questions
with correct answers and rationales. It emphasizes pediatric health maintenance, acute illness/injury, development/behavior,
neonatology, pharmacology, and chronic disease management aligned with PAEA EOR-style pediatrics assessment themes.
This is an independent educational study aid; it is not an official PAEA exam instrument. Always verify immunization
schedules, drug dosing, and guidelines with current CDC/AAP sources and your rotation preceptors.
Answer Format
All correct answers appear in bold and cyan, with concise rationales explaining clinical reasoning and why alternative
options are less appropriate.
EXAM QUESTIONS (1–120)
Section: Health Maintenance & Prevention
Question 1
The recommended position for safe infant sleep to reduce SIDS risk is:
A. Supine (back) on a firm flat surface without soft bedding
B. Prone with thick blankets
C. Side-lying with pillows
D. In a car seat overnight routinely
Correct Answer: A. Supine (back) on a firm flat surface without soft bedding
Rationale: AAP: back to sleep, firm surface, no soft objects, room-sharing without bed-sharing.
Question 2
Exclusive breastfeeding is generally recommended for about the first:
A. 6 months (with continued breastfeeding plus complementary foods thereafter)
B. 2 weeks only
C. 24 months exclusive without solids ever
D. Formula only from birth always
Correct Answer: A. 6 months (with continued breastfeeding plus complementary foods thereafter)
Rationale: WHO/AAP support exclusive breastfeeding ~6 months when possible.
Question 3
Vitamin D supplementation for breastfed infants is recommended at approximately:
A. 400 IU daily
B. 0 IU if any sunlight
C. 10,000 IU daily routinely
D. Only after age 5 years
Correct Answer: A. 400 IU daily
Rationale: Breast milk often provides insufficient vitamin D; supplement per AAP guidance.
Question 4
,Iron-rich complementary foods are typically introduced around:
A. About 6 months of age
B. 2 weeks of age
C. Only after age 2 years
D. Never if breastfed
Correct Answer: A. About 6 months of age
Rationale: Iron needs rise as neonatal stores decline; introduce iron-containing foods ~6 months.
Question 5
The first dental visit is often recommended by:
A. Age 1 year or within 6 months of first tooth eruption
B. Age 5 years only
C. Only if cavities are visible
D. Never before adolescence
Correct Answer: A. Age 1 year or within 6 months of first tooth eruption
Rationale: Early dental home prevents early childhood caries.
Question 6
Lead screening is especially important for:
A. At-risk toddlers (e.g., older housing, Medicaid populations) per guidelines
B. Only teenagers who play sports
C. Only newborns in the delivery room always
D. Never indicated in the US
Correct Answer: A. At-risk toddlers (e.g., older housing, Medicaid populations) per guidelines
Rationale: Screen based on risk/local prevalence; elevated lead harms neurodevelopment.
Question 7
Vision screening in early childhood aims to detect:
A. Amblyopia risk factors and refractive errors early enough for effective treatment
B. Only color blindness in adults
C. Only cataracts of aging
D. Only retinal detachment in trauma exclusively
Correct Answer: A. Amblyopia risk factors and refractive errors early enough for effective treatment
Rationale: Critical period for amblyopia treatment is early childhood.
Question 8
Hearing screening is universally recommended for:
A. All newborns before hospital discharge (or soon after)
B. Only children who fail school exams
C. Only after speech delay is obvious for years
D. Only if parents request
Correct Answer: A. All newborns before hospital discharge (or soon after)
Rationale: Early detection enables early intervention for language development.
Question 9
A 2-month well visit vaccine panel commonly includes (conceptually):
A. DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV, HepB, rotavirus (per current CDC schedule)
B. MMR and varicella as first-line at 2 months always
C. HPV vaccine at 2 months routinely
D. Zoster vaccine
Correct Answer: A. DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV, HepB, rotavirus (per current CDC schedule)
Rationale: Know CDC schedule concepts; live MMR/varicella start ~12 months.
Question 10
MMR and varicella vaccines are generally first given around:
A. 12–15 months
B. Birth
C. 2 months only
, D. Only after age 10 years
Correct Answer: A. 12–15 months
Rationale: Live vaccines after maternal antibody wanes; second doses later in childhood.
Question 11
Contraindications to live vaccines generally include:
A. Significant immunocompromise and pregnancy (for many live vaccines)—follow current guidance
B. Mild afebrile URI as absolute contraindication for all vaccines always
C. Prior vaccination of a sibling always
D. Age over 1 year always
Correct Answer: A. Significant immunocompromise and pregnancy (for many live vaccines)—follow current
guidance
Rationale: Screen carefully; mild illness often not a contraindication.
Question 12
Anticipatory guidance at 4–6 months often includes:
A. Introduction of solids, injury prevention, sleep, and developmental stimulation
B. Driver education
C. College planning only
D. Only sports physicals for contact sports
Correct Answer: A. Introduction of solids, injury prevention, sleep, and developmental stimulation
Rationale: Age-appropriate counseling is core of well-child care.
Question 13
Car seat guidance for infants generally requires:
A. Rear-facing as long as possible within seat limits (often through age 2+ per best practice trends)
B. Forward-facing from birth
C. No car seat if trip is short
D. Seat belts only under age 1
Correct Answer: A. Rear-facing as long as possible within seat limits (often through age 2+ per best practice
trends)
Rationale: Rear-facing best protects infant spine/head; follow current AAP/NHTSA guidance.
Question 14
Water heater temperature should be set to about:
A. ≤120°F (49°C) to reduce scald risk
B. 140°F to prevent all bacteria always without scald concern
C. 160°F for faster baths
D. No recommendation exists
Correct Answer: A. ≤120°F (49°C) to reduce scald risk
Rationale: Scald prevention is key anticipatory guidance.
Question 15
Fluoride varnish may be applied in primary care starting when:
A. Teeth erupt, especially for high caries-risk children
B. Only after all permanent teeth erupt
C. Never in medical offices
D. Only in adulthood
Correct Answer: A. Teeth erupt, especially for high caries-risk children
Rationale: Fluoride varnish reduces caries; risk-based application.
Question 16
Adolescent well visits should routinely address:
A. Confidential sexual health, mental health, substance use, safety, and immunizations
B. Only growth charts without psychosocial screening
C. Only sports clearance without HEADSS-type assessment
D. Avoiding all sensitive topics
Correct Answer: A. Confidential sexual health, mental health, substance use, safety, and immunizations
PEDIATRICS PRACTICE GUIDE 2026–2027
120 Practice Questions with Correct Answers & Clinical Rationales
Already Graded A+ Style Review | Aligned to PAEA Pediatrics EOR Blueprint Themes
Medicine & PA Studies | PAEA EOR Pediatrics | 120 items (100 scored + 20 pretest reference)
Key Domains: Health Maintenance and Prevention, Acute Illness and Injury Management, Behavioral and Developmental Pediatrics,
Pediatric Pharmacology, Neonatal Care, and Chronic Disease Management in Children
Introduction
This structured Pediatrics End of Rotation (EOR) practice format for 2026–2027 provides high-quality exam-style questions
with correct answers and rationales. It emphasizes pediatric health maintenance, acute illness/injury, development/behavior,
neonatology, pharmacology, and chronic disease management aligned with PAEA EOR-style pediatrics assessment themes.
This is an independent educational study aid; it is not an official PAEA exam instrument. Always verify immunization
schedules, drug dosing, and guidelines with current CDC/AAP sources and your rotation preceptors.
Answer Format
All correct answers appear in bold and cyan, with concise rationales explaining clinical reasoning and why alternative
options are less appropriate.
EXAM QUESTIONS (1–120)
Section: Health Maintenance & Prevention
Question 1
The recommended position for safe infant sleep to reduce SIDS risk is:
A. Supine (back) on a firm flat surface without soft bedding
B. Prone with thick blankets
C. Side-lying with pillows
D. In a car seat overnight routinely
Correct Answer: A. Supine (back) on a firm flat surface without soft bedding
Rationale: AAP: back to sleep, firm surface, no soft objects, room-sharing without bed-sharing.
Question 2
Exclusive breastfeeding is generally recommended for about the first:
A. 6 months (with continued breastfeeding plus complementary foods thereafter)
B. 2 weeks only
C. 24 months exclusive without solids ever
D. Formula only from birth always
Correct Answer: A. 6 months (with continued breastfeeding plus complementary foods thereafter)
Rationale: WHO/AAP support exclusive breastfeeding ~6 months when possible.
Question 3
Vitamin D supplementation for breastfed infants is recommended at approximately:
A. 400 IU daily
B. 0 IU if any sunlight
C. 10,000 IU daily routinely
D. Only after age 5 years
Correct Answer: A. 400 IU daily
Rationale: Breast milk often provides insufficient vitamin D; supplement per AAP guidance.
Question 4
,Iron-rich complementary foods are typically introduced around:
A. About 6 months of age
B. 2 weeks of age
C. Only after age 2 years
D. Never if breastfed
Correct Answer: A. About 6 months of age
Rationale: Iron needs rise as neonatal stores decline; introduce iron-containing foods ~6 months.
Question 5
The first dental visit is often recommended by:
A. Age 1 year or within 6 months of first tooth eruption
B. Age 5 years only
C. Only if cavities are visible
D. Never before adolescence
Correct Answer: A. Age 1 year or within 6 months of first tooth eruption
Rationale: Early dental home prevents early childhood caries.
Question 6
Lead screening is especially important for:
A. At-risk toddlers (e.g., older housing, Medicaid populations) per guidelines
B. Only teenagers who play sports
C. Only newborns in the delivery room always
D. Never indicated in the US
Correct Answer: A. At-risk toddlers (e.g., older housing, Medicaid populations) per guidelines
Rationale: Screen based on risk/local prevalence; elevated lead harms neurodevelopment.
Question 7
Vision screening in early childhood aims to detect:
A. Amblyopia risk factors and refractive errors early enough for effective treatment
B. Only color blindness in adults
C. Only cataracts of aging
D. Only retinal detachment in trauma exclusively
Correct Answer: A. Amblyopia risk factors and refractive errors early enough for effective treatment
Rationale: Critical period for amblyopia treatment is early childhood.
Question 8
Hearing screening is universally recommended for:
A. All newborns before hospital discharge (or soon after)
B. Only children who fail school exams
C. Only after speech delay is obvious for years
D. Only if parents request
Correct Answer: A. All newborns before hospital discharge (or soon after)
Rationale: Early detection enables early intervention for language development.
Question 9
A 2-month well visit vaccine panel commonly includes (conceptually):
A. DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV, HepB, rotavirus (per current CDC schedule)
B. MMR and varicella as first-line at 2 months always
C. HPV vaccine at 2 months routinely
D. Zoster vaccine
Correct Answer: A. DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV, HepB, rotavirus (per current CDC schedule)
Rationale: Know CDC schedule concepts; live MMR/varicella start ~12 months.
Question 10
MMR and varicella vaccines are generally first given around:
A. 12–15 months
B. Birth
C. 2 months only
, D. Only after age 10 years
Correct Answer: A. 12–15 months
Rationale: Live vaccines after maternal antibody wanes; second doses later in childhood.
Question 11
Contraindications to live vaccines generally include:
A. Significant immunocompromise and pregnancy (for many live vaccines)—follow current guidance
B. Mild afebrile URI as absolute contraindication for all vaccines always
C. Prior vaccination of a sibling always
D. Age over 1 year always
Correct Answer: A. Significant immunocompromise and pregnancy (for many live vaccines)—follow current
guidance
Rationale: Screen carefully; mild illness often not a contraindication.
Question 12
Anticipatory guidance at 4–6 months often includes:
A. Introduction of solids, injury prevention, sleep, and developmental stimulation
B. Driver education
C. College planning only
D. Only sports physicals for contact sports
Correct Answer: A. Introduction of solids, injury prevention, sleep, and developmental stimulation
Rationale: Age-appropriate counseling is core of well-child care.
Question 13
Car seat guidance for infants generally requires:
A. Rear-facing as long as possible within seat limits (often through age 2+ per best practice trends)
B. Forward-facing from birth
C. No car seat if trip is short
D. Seat belts only under age 1
Correct Answer: A. Rear-facing as long as possible within seat limits (often through age 2+ per best practice
trends)
Rationale: Rear-facing best protects infant spine/head; follow current AAP/NHTSA guidance.
Question 14
Water heater temperature should be set to about:
A. ≤120°F (49°C) to reduce scald risk
B. 140°F to prevent all bacteria always without scald concern
C. 160°F for faster baths
D. No recommendation exists
Correct Answer: A. ≤120°F (49°C) to reduce scald risk
Rationale: Scald prevention is key anticipatory guidance.
Question 15
Fluoride varnish may be applied in primary care starting when:
A. Teeth erupt, especially for high caries-risk children
B. Only after all permanent teeth erupt
C. Never in medical offices
D. Only in adulthood
Correct Answer: A. Teeth erupt, especially for high caries-risk children
Rationale: Fluoride varnish reduces caries; risk-based application.
Question 16
Adolescent well visits should routinely address:
A. Confidential sexual health, mental health, substance use, safety, and immunizations
B. Only growth charts without psychosocial screening
C. Only sports clearance without HEADSS-type assessment
D. Avoiding all sensitive topics
Correct Answer: A. Confidential sexual health, mental health, substance use, safety, and immunizations
