NR 507 / NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam | Verified Answers | Latest Update 2026 / 2027 | Chamberlain University | Exam Review & Practice Questions

NR 507 / NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam | Verified Answers | Latest Update 2026 / 2027 | Chamberlain University | Exam Review & Practice Questions What is a symptom of a lower urinary tract infection? Urgency What is true regarding complicated UTIs? Can be caused by a structural urinary tract disorder What can help prevent a UTI? Increased water consumption True/False: Women are at higher risk of developing UTI because they have a shorter urethra True What is a risk factor for developing a UTI? Pregnancy What is true regarding an uncomplicated UTI? - Occurs in the normal urinary tract - Responds well to short-course of antibiotics What is true regarding a complicated UTI? - UTI that extends beyond the bladder - Infants & older adults are usually affected - Caused by structural/functional urinary tract abnormalities or a untreated UTI What will the urinalysis of a patient with a UTI show? WBCs & casts The NP knows an uncomplicated UTI because the UTI responds well to a short-course of antibiotic therapy Highly suspective that causative bacteria of UTI is gram negative because of the presence of Nitrites A common organism that causes a UTI includes Staphylococcus saprophyticus True/False: There is a significant risk for men with BPH to develop cellular mutations that lead to prostate cancer False True/False: The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone True On digital rectal exam to assess quality of prostate, NP would be concerned with a hard nodule because it indicates prostate cancer The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when the prostatic urethra becomes obstructed True/False: The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction encountered during urination True What is the reaction of 5-Alpha reductase inhibitors? To cause shrinkage of the prostate gland Where are the hyper plastic nodules of BPH located? Periurethral zone Why are men who have BPH prone to develop UTIs? Because of the stagnation of urine in the bladder that promotes bacterial growth. True/False: PSA helps liquefy semen post-ejaculation True True/False: The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to increases in dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer & multiply True What is the most common type of formed stone? Calcium stone What is the type of stone formed during a UTI? Struvite stone True/False: The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis False- CT scan is the gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone True/False: Renal stones are formed when calcium & oxalate in the urine combine True True/False: Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder False - Renal calculi can be found in the ureter or the bladder Why can hematuria be seen with kidney stones? BTrecause the stone injures the urinary structures as it passes through them True/False: Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter True True/False: At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence within 10 years of their prior stone. True True/False: Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone False What is the most common stone found in the patient with gout? Uric acid stone This relay station in the brain plays a major role in regulation micturition (urination) Pontine micturition center True/False: The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital diaphragm False - located in the bladder True/False: The elevator ani muscle plays a role in constriction of the external sphincter True Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder? Activation of beta-2 receptors by the SNS True/False: When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal & external sphincters constrict True Stress Incontinence Leaking of urine with sensation of need to urinate What is the Patho of stress incontinence? Detrusor muscle hyperactivity which leads to urine leakage Neurogenic Incontinence Unimpeded urine leakage Neurogenic Incontinence Patho Neurological lesions alter the nervous system impulses that innervate the detrusor muscle, results in decreased bladder compliance & decreased sphincter tone Overflow Incontinence Leaking of urine associated with urgency, frequency, dribbling & hesitancy Overflow Incontinence Patho Leaking due to a restrained urine in the bladder which leads to over distention True/False: The major cause of stress incontinence in women is hyper mobility of external sphincter True Which of the following is a transient cause of urinary incontinence? Urinary tract infection What is the Patho of neurogenic bladder? Lesions that alter nervous system impulses that innervate the detrusor muscle to decrease bladder compliance & decreased sphincter tone Involuntary loss of urine caused by dementia or immobility is known as Functional incontinence A sphincter malfunction that prevents urine from flowing out of bladder would result in Overflow incontinence True/False: One of the major markers for glomerular filtration rate is creatinine True True/False: The most common cause of acute renal failure is due to pre-renal failure True What is an example of pre-renal cause of acute renal failure? Hypotension What is one of the first Patho responses to decreased GFR in acute renal failure is what? Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system What is the most common type of acute renal failure? Pre-renal failure True/False: Patients with acute renal failure have HYPOkalemia False - Hyperkalemia True/False: Creatinine gets freely filtered from the glomerulus True True/False: In post-renal failure, the damage occurs in the collecting duct True In intrinsic renal failure, sodium & water excretion is increased which leads to dilute urine True What is the best indicator of good prognosis for recovery from acute renal failure? Kidneys respond well to Furosemide What is the number one cause of end-stage renal disease? Diabetes Mellitus & hypertension Stage III Kidney Disease is signified when GFR drops below what #? Drops below 60 Why do those with renal failure have anemia? There is a reduced production of erythropoietin, which is responsible for triggering in the production of RBCs rather than the lack of iron/decrease in RBCs What is a complication of decreased GFR? Anemia What is the result of Vitamin D deficiency? Hypocalcemia What is end-stage renal disease signified with GFR? GFR less than 15 What is the major acid/base disturbance in renal failure? Metabolic Acidosis When can you use diuretic therapy to stimulate kidney function (What stage of renal failure) Stages I, II & III Dietary management of patient with CKD includes Low potassium, low sodium & low phosphate diet True/False: The decision to begin dialysis is guided by the patient's symptoms rather than the GFR True What is GERD caused by? Loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter What are typical GERD symptoms? Heart burn & regurgitation What is a risk factor for the development of GERD? Obesity What is the bacteria associated with GERD? H. pylori What is an atypical S&S of GERD? Chest pain What S&S indicate GERD? Sour taste in mouth, globs, odynophagia & dysphagia What is the gold standard for treatment of GERD? PPI What is an 'alarm' finding in a person with GERD symptoms? Iron-deficiency anemia (can indicate bleeding) What is a pseudo bowel obstruction due to? Myopathy or neuropathy What are complications of a bowel obstruction? Ischemic bowel, perforation, peritonitis True/False: A volvulus is the twisting of the bowel True Intussusception Refers to part of the bowel that invaginates itself Hiatal Hernia Patients can be asymptomatic The result of gas accumulation in the bowel is called Venous compression, decreased oxygen & sepsis Anti-prostaglandin drugs cause gastric mucosal injury by Decreasing the thickness of the mucosa True/False: Stomach pain that increases after a meal is characteristic of a gastric ulcer True What contributes to the development of an ulcer (medication) Regular use of NSAIDs What age is least likely to have a gastric ulcer? Age less than 50 years old Stomach pain that decreases after a meal is characteristic of what type of ulcer? Duodenal ulcer Intermittent upper abdominal pain & burning 2 hours after meals are symptoms of Duodenal ulcers True/False: Smoking is a risk factor for inflammatory bowel disease True The presence of anemia found in patient with Crohn's disease indicates Vitamin B12 malabsorption (mucosal blood loss for Vitamin B12 malabsorption) What is a complication associated with Crohn's disease (imaging) Cobblestone appearance of GI. lining The damage from Crohn's disease occurs where in the GI tract? Terminal ileum is the primary site of damage Symptoms of Ulcerative Colitis Rectal bleeding, bloody diarrhea & anemia The pathology of Crohn's disease & Ulcerative Colitis involve Macrophages & neutrophils attacking the intestinal wall Under normal liver function, what vitamin do the hepatic stellate cells store? Vitamin A What are classic signs of cirrhosis Bumpy & rough appearance, colonies of fibrotic tissue True/False: Cirrhosis is a reversible condition if treated aggressively False What sign indicates the patient with cirrhosis has a high bilirubin level? Dark brown urine because of the hepatocytes conjugating bilirubin What occurs in the last stage of cirrhosis? Esophageal due to back up of fluid What are the most common antidepressants prescribed? SSRIs What gland is responsible for regulating the sleep-wake cycle? Pineal gland What does the release of aldosterone promote in the kidneys? Produces sodium reabsorption & potassium excretion in the kidneys Is TSH production increased or decreased in hypothyroidism? Increased What are two distinguishing factors of Grave's disease? Pretibial myxedema & exophthalmos Hyperthyroid vs. Hypothyroid Hyper - Elevated thyroid hormone, decreased TSH, enlarged liver, hand tremors Hypo - Decreased thyroid hormone, elevated TSH, fatigue & diminished DTRs What affects an individual's response to insulin? Weight, height, activity level & abdominal fat Type I DM Usually those from 10-20 years old, associated with DKA, symptoms of polyuria, polyphagia & polydipsia Type II DM Usually over 40 years old, associated with HHS & symptoms of weakness, weight loss & infections What do alpha cells do Secrete glucagon What do beta cells do Secrete insulin & amylin, inhibits glucagon secretion What do delta cells do Secrete gastrin & somatostatin What do F (PP) cells do Secrete pancreatic polypeptide that stimulates gastric secretions & antagonizes cholecystokinin What is metabolic syndrome characterized by? Hyperlipidemia, obesity & HTN Primary Hyperparathyroidism Caused by over secretion of parathyroid hormone, hyper function of PTH cells due to adenoma Secondary Hyperparathyroidism Stimulation of PTH in response to hypocalcemia, caused by Vitamin D deficiency Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism Long-term stimulation of PTH leads to hyperplasia, caused by chronic renal failure Hypocalcemia in relation to PTH & Phosphorus Low Calcium = Low PTH = High Phosphorous S&S of Hypocalcemia Dry skin, loss of body/scalp hair, hypoplasia of developing teeth, horizontal ridges on nails What electrolyte abnormality is involved in the initiation & propagation phase of seizure development? Hyponatremia Unilateral headache Also known as migraine, involves one side of the face Tension headache feels like tightness around the forehead Cluster headache Located around the orbital eye area Sinus headache Related to sinus, X around eyes & nose What is Bell's palsy caused by Damage to trigeminal nerve (7th Cranial Nerve/Facial Nerve) What is trigeminal nerve pain described as Intermittent pain that can be incapacitating, sharp & stabbing