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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2026 NGN | Verified Questions & Correct Answers | Practical Nursing Exam Prep

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FOLLOW THE STORE FOR MORE LATEST EXAM PREP RESOURCES! Comprehensive ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2026 NGN study resource designed to help Practical Nursing students prepare confidently for the ATI exit assessment and NCLEX-PN success. Covers high-yield nursing topics including adult medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, maternal-newborn, pediatrics, mental health, leadership, nutrition, fundamentals, infection control, prioritization, delegation, and NGN clinical judgment concepts. Includes extensive practice questions with verified correct answers to reinforce critical thinking, clinical decision-making, and Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) testing strategies. Ideal for ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor review, nursing school exit exams, remediation, and final exam preparation, helping identify strengths and improve weak content areas. Updated for 2026 with organized, exam-focused content that supports efficient revision, boosts confidence, enhances test-taking skills, and maximizes readiness for first-attempt success.

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Institution
ATI PN
Course
ATI PN

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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam
2026 NGN | Verified Questions & Correct
Answers | Practical Nursing Exam Prep
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 NGN Verified Questions
& Correct Answers | Practical Nursing Exam Prep

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OVERVIEW

• This comprehensive exam contains 200 strategically developed questions
designed to simulate the actual ATI PN exit exam format, covering all major nursing
domains including fundamentals, pharmacology, medical-surgical, maternal-child,
psychiatric, and gerontological nursing.

• Study this material by reviewing each question carefully, attempting to answer
before checking the correct response, and focusing on the detailed rationales to
strengthen your clinical reasoning and decision-making skills for the actual licensing
examination.

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QUESTION 1

A 45-year-old client presents to the emergency department with chest pain
radiating to the left arm. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

A) Obtain a detailed pain history from the client

B) Administer oxygen and establish IV access

C) Perform a complete physical examination

D) Contact the family members immediately

E) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring

CORRECT ANSWER: E) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring

RATIONALE: When a client presents with symptoms suggestive of acute coronary
syndrome (chest pain radiating to the left arm), the priority intervention is to
establish continuous cardiac monitoring to detect any dysrhythmias or electrical

,changes indicative of myocardial infarction. While oxygen administration and IV
access are also important, monitoring allows for immediate detection of life-
threatening changes. A detailed pain history and family notification are important
but secondary to stabilization measures.

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QUESTION 2

Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for developing a pressure
injury?

A) A 30-year-old ambulatory client receiving physical therapy

B) A 78-year-old client on bed rest with diabetes and poor nutrition

C) A 25-year-old client with minor surgical wounds

D) A 40-year-old client with controlled hypertension

E) A 35-year-old client who is recovering from a fractured ankle

CORRECT ANSWER: B) A 78-year-old client on bed rest with diabetes and
poor nutrition

RATIONALE: Pressure injury risk is determined by multiple factors including
immobility, age, compromised nutritional status, and conditions affecting tissue
perfusion. This client has multiple risk factors: advanced age (78), immobility (bed
rest), diabetes (impairs wound healing and circulation), and poor nutrition
(inadequate protein for tissue repair). These combined factors significantly increase
pressure injury risk. The other clients either have fewer risk factors or increased
mobility which decreases pressure injury risk.

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QUESTION 3

A client receiving chemotherapy develops severe nausea and vomiting. Which
antiemetic medication should the nurse anticipate will be most effective for
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

,A) Metoclopramide (Reglan)

B) Ondansetron (Zofran)

C) Promethazine (Phenergan)

D) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

E) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Ondansetron (Zofran)

RATIONALE: Ondansetron, a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, is considered the
gold standard for preventing and managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and
vomiting (CINV). It works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor
trigger zone and gastrointestinal tract, making it highly effective for this specific
type of nausea. Metoclopramide works on dopamine receptors, promethazine is a
phenothiazine, and diphenhydramine is an antihistamine—none are as specifically
effective for CINV as ondansetron.

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QUESTION 4

A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after delivery. Which finding
would require immediate notification of the healthcare provider?

A) Cyanosis of the hands and feet

B) Respiratory rate of 52 breaths per minute

C) Mottled skin appearance

D) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute with retractions

E) Vernix caseosa on the skin

CORRECT ANSWER: D) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute with
retractions

RATIONALE: While a normal newborn respiratory rate ranges from 30-60 breaths
per minute, the presence of retractions (intercostal, substernal, or suprasternal)

, indicates respiratory distress and increased work of breathing. This requires
immediate intervention. Cyanosis of hands/feet (acrocyanosis) and mottled skin are
normal transitional findings in newborns. A respiratory rate of 52 is within normal
limits. Vernix caseosa is normal protective coating.

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QUESTION 5

A client with schizophrenia is experiencing command hallucinations to harm
themselves. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

A) Encourage the client to obey the voices as a way to release tension

B) Isolate the client in a quiet room to reduce stimulation

C) Assess the client's intent and keep them under close supervision

D) Tell the client the voices are not real and to ignore them

E) Administer PRN sedatives to eliminate the hallucinations

CORRECT ANSWER: C) Assess the client's intent and keep them under close
supervision

RATIONALE: When a client is experiencing command hallucinations, especially
those commanding self-harm, the priority is safety assessment and close
monitoring. The nurse must assess whether the client intends to act on the
hallucinations and maintain constant observation. Simply telling the client voices
aren't real dismisses their experience. Isolation may increase anxiety. Encouraging
obedience to voices is dangerous. While medication may be part of treatment, it
cannot replace direct supervision and assessment for imminent risk.

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════════════════════════

QUESTION 6

A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor most closely to assess for ototoxicity?

A) White blood cell count

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