NURS 5220 ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT TEST 1
NEWEST EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES LATEST UPDATES
2026/2027 (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+
1. During a comprehensive health history, which component provides the greatest insight into
a patient's risk for inherited diseases?
A. Review of Systems
B. Social History
C. Family History
D. Medication History
Answer: C. Family History
Rationale: The family history identifies genetic predispositions to diseases such as
hypertension, diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, breast cancer, colon cancer, and
certain autoimmune disorders. Obtaining information about first-degree relatives helps
clinicians assess inherited risk factors and guide preventive screening recommendations.
2. An advanced practice nurse is obtaining a patient's history. Which question is considered an
open-ended question?
A. "Do you have chest pain?"
B. "Have you been taking your medications?"
C. "Can you describe what brought you to the clinic today?"
D. "Is your pain worse at night?"
Answer: C. "Can you describe what brought you to the clinic today?"
,Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage patients to tell their story in their own words,
providing more detailed and accurate information. They help establish rapport and often
reveal concerns that may not emerge through closed-ended questioning.
3. Which technique demonstrates active listening during the patient interview?
A. Frequently interrupting the patient
B. Completing the patient's sentences
C. Maintaining eye contact, allowing pauses, and using verbal encouragement
D. Asking multiple questions simultaneously
Answer: C. Maintaining eye contact, allowing pauses, and using verbal encouragement
Rationale: Active listening involves attentive body language, appropriate eye contact, minimal
interruptions, reflective responses, and allowing the patient sufficient time to express
concerns, thereby improving communication and diagnostic accuracy.
4. Which component of the health history identifies the patient's primary reason for seeking
medical care?
A. Past Medical History
B. Chief Complaint
C. Family History
D. Social History
Answer: B. Chief Complaint
Rationale: The chief complaint is the patient's primary reason for the healthcare visit and is
usually documented using the patient's own words whenever possible.
5. Which mnemonic is commonly used to assess the history of a present illness?
A. SAMPLE
B. ABCDE
C. OLDCARTS
D. AVPU
Answer: C. OLDCARTS
,Rationale: OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating factors,
Relieving factors, Timing, Severity) provides a structured approach for obtaining a detailed
history of the patient's current complaint.
6. During the physical examination, what is the correct sequence of assessment for most body
systems?
A. Palpation, Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
D. Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpation
Answer: C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
Rationale: For most body systems, inspection is performed first, followed by palpation,
percussion, and auscultation. This sequence allows the examiner to gather visual information
before physically examining the patient.
7. Which body system is the exception to the standard examination sequence?
A. Cardiovascular
B. Abdomen
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Peripheral Vascular
Answer: B. Abdomen
Rationale: The abdominal examination is performed in the order of inspection, auscultation,
percussion, and palpation because palpation or percussion before auscultation may alter
bowel sounds.
8. Which vital sign finding in a healthy adult is generally considered normal?
A. Respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute
B. Heart rate of 42 beats/minute in a sedentary adult
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
D. Oral temperature of 101.8°F (38.8°C)
Answer: C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
, Rationale: According to current hypertension guidelines, a blood pressure below 120/80
mmHg is considered within the normal range for most healthy adults.
9. Which technique is used to determine the density of underlying body tissues?
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
Answer: C. Percussion
Rationale: Percussion produces sounds that help determine whether underlying tissues are
filled with air, fluid, or solid material and assists in estimating organ size and identifying
abnormalities.
10. Which structure is evaluated when palpating the carotid pulse?
A. Radial artery
B. Common carotid artery
C. Jugular vein
D. Temporal artery
Answer: B. Common carotid artery
Rationale: The carotid pulse is assessed by palpating the common carotid artery one side at a
time to avoid compromising cerebral blood flow.
11. During assessment of the pupils, the acronym PERRLA stands for:
A. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation
B. Pupils Equal, Reactive, Regular, Light Assessment
C. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light Alone
D. Pupils Reactive, Equal, Round, Light Assessment
Answer: A. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation
Rationale: PERRLA documents that the pupils are equal in size, round in shape, reactive to
light, and accommodate appropriately during near vision testing.
NEWEST EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES LATEST UPDATES
2026/2027 (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+
1. During a comprehensive health history, which component provides the greatest insight into
a patient's risk for inherited diseases?
A. Review of Systems
B. Social History
C. Family History
D. Medication History
Answer: C. Family History
Rationale: The family history identifies genetic predispositions to diseases such as
hypertension, diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, breast cancer, colon cancer, and
certain autoimmune disorders. Obtaining information about first-degree relatives helps
clinicians assess inherited risk factors and guide preventive screening recommendations.
2. An advanced practice nurse is obtaining a patient's history. Which question is considered an
open-ended question?
A. "Do you have chest pain?"
B. "Have you been taking your medications?"
C. "Can you describe what brought you to the clinic today?"
D. "Is your pain worse at night?"
Answer: C. "Can you describe what brought you to the clinic today?"
,Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage patients to tell their story in their own words,
providing more detailed and accurate information. They help establish rapport and often
reveal concerns that may not emerge through closed-ended questioning.
3. Which technique demonstrates active listening during the patient interview?
A. Frequently interrupting the patient
B. Completing the patient's sentences
C. Maintaining eye contact, allowing pauses, and using verbal encouragement
D. Asking multiple questions simultaneously
Answer: C. Maintaining eye contact, allowing pauses, and using verbal encouragement
Rationale: Active listening involves attentive body language, appropriate eye contact, minimal
interruptions, reflective responses, and allowing the patient sufficient time to express
concerns, thereby improving communication and diagnostic accuracy.
4. Which component of the health history identifies the patient's primary reason for seeking
medical care?
A. Past Medical History
B. Chief Complaint
C. Family History
D. Social History
Answer: B. Chief Complaint
Rationale: The chief complaint is the patient's primary reason for the healthcare visit and is
usually documented using the patient's own words whenever possible.
5. Which mnemonic is commonly used to assess the history of a present illness?
A. SAMPLE
B. ABCDE
C. OLDCARTS
D. AVPU
Answer: C. OLDCARTS
,Rationale: OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating factors,
Relieving factors, Timing, Severity) provides a structured approach for obtaining a detailed
history of the patient's current complaint.
6. During the physical examination, what is the correct sequence of assessment for most body
systems?
A. Palpation, Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
D. Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpation
Answer: C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
Rationale: For most body systems, inspection is performed first, followed by palpation,
percussion, and auscultation. This sequence allows the examiner to gather visual information
before physically examining the patient.
7. Which body system is the exception to the standard examination sequence?
A. Cardiovascular
B. Abdomen
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Peripheral Vascular
Answer: B. Abdomen
Rationale: The abdominal examination is performed in the order of inspection, auscultation,
percussion, and palpation because palpation or percussion before auscultation may alter
bowel sounds.
8. Which vital sign finding in a healthy adult is generally considered normal?
A. Respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute
B. Heart rate of 42 beats/minute in a sedentary adult
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
D. Oral temperature of 101.8°F (38.8°C)
Answer: C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
, Rationale: According to current hypertension guidelines, a blood pressure below 120/80
mmHg is considered within the normal range for most healthy adults.
9. Which technique is used to determine the density of underlying body tissues?
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
Answer: C. Percussion
Rationale: Percussion produces sounds that help determine whether underlying tissues are
filled with air, fluid, or solid material and assists in estimating organ size and identifying
abnormalities.
10. Which structure is evaluated when palpating the carotid pulse?
A. Radial artery
B. Common carotid artery
C. Jugular vein
D. Temporal artery
Answer: B. Common carotid artery
Rationale: The carotid pulse is assessed by palpating the common carotid artery one side at a
time to avoid compromising cerebral blood flow.
11. During assessment of the pupils, the acronym PERRLA stands for:
A. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation
B. Pupils Equal, Reactive, Regular, Light Assessment
C. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light Alone
D. Pupils Reactive, Equal, Round, Light Assessment
Answer: A. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation
Rationale: PERRLA documents that the pupils are equal in size, round in shape, reactive to
light, and accommodate appropriately during near vision testing.
