BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027) Pharmacology |...
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027)
Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100%
Correct - Portage Learning 2026/2027
2026/2027 Official Exam
100 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics Endocrine & Reproductive Pharmacology
Autonomic & CNS Pharmacology Anti-infectives & Chemotherapy
Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology Nursing Implications & Patient Education
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics | Q1-Q17 | BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027) Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct - Portage Learning 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 68-year-old male receives an intravenous dose of gentamicin for a Gram-negative
infection. The nurse understands that the volume of distribution of this hydrophilic drug is
largely confined to which body compartment?
A. Extracellular fluid due to high water solubility
B. Adipose tissue due to high lipid solubility
C. Intracellular fluid due to active transport
D. Cerebrospinal fluid due to passive diffusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin are highly water-soluble and distribute primarily in extracellular fluid,
giving them a relatively small volume of distribution. Lipid-soluble drugs distribute into adipose tissue and have
a larger volume of distribution, so that alternative misstates the physicochemical driver.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
A 55-year-old female takes oral levothyroxine and asks her nurse practitioner about calcium
supplement timing. The stomach absorbs only a few drugs because of which anatomic
feature that limits absorption there?
A. Villi and microvilli creating a large absorptive surface area
B. Thick mucus layer and limited surface area
C. High concentration of cytochrome P450 enzymes
D. Low pH that activates prodrugs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The stomach has a thick mucus layer and limited surface area, so only a few weakly acidic drugs are absorbed
there, while most absorption occurs in the small intestine with its villi and microvilli. Calcium supplements can
chelate levothyroxine in the gut, reducing its absorption and necessitating separation of doses by at least 4
hours.
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, Q3 Question 3 of 100
A 42-year-old male receives IV morphine for postoperative pain, and the nurse recognizes
that morphine has low oral bioavailability due to extensive first-pass metabolism. First-pass
metabolism occurs primarily in which organ?
A. The lungs, via pulmonary endothelial enzymes
B. The kidneys, via glomerular filtration
C. The liver, via the portal circulation before systemic distribution
D. The stomach, via gastric acid hydrolysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
First-pass metabolism describes hepatic metabolism of orally administered drugs before they reach systemic
circulation, significantly reducing bioavailability of drugs like morphine and propranolol. Renal filtration occurs
after systemic distribution, so the alternative mislocates the metabolic site.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
A 72-year-old female with hepatic cirrhosis is started on a benzodiazepine and the dose is
reduced because phase I metabolism is impaired. Phase I hepatic metabolism primarily
involves which biochemical reactions?
A. Biliary excretion of unchanged parent drug
B. Conjugation with glucuronic acid or sulfate
C. Active tubular secretion into the renal proximal tubule
D. Oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis catalyzed by cytochrome P450
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Phase I metabolism involves oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis frequently catalyzed by cytochrome P450
enzymes, and is impaired in older adults and liver disease. Conjugation reactions are Phase II, which is
relatively preserved in aging, so the alternative misclassifies the metabolic phase.
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, Q5 Question 5 of 100
A neonate receives morphine for postoperative analgesia and the dose must be reduced
because glucuronidation is immature at birth. Phase II hepatic metabolism primarily
accomplishes which pharmacokinetic outcome?
A. Conjugation with glucuronide, sulfate, or glycine to increase water solubility for renal
excretion
B. Oxidation by cytochrome P450 enzymes to activate prodrugs
C. Active transport across the blood-brain barrier
D. Plasma protein binding to albumin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Phase II metabolism conjugates drugs with polar groups such as glucuronide, sulfate, or glycine, increasing
water solubility and facilitating renal or biliary excretion. Cytochrome P450 catalyzes Phase I oxidation
reactions, not Phase II, so the alternative confuses the metabolic phases.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
A 60-year-old male with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine clearance of 25 mL/min and
is prescribed vancomycin. The dose interval is extended because renal drug elimination
depends primarily on which process?
A. Active tubular secretion in the collecting duct only
B. Glomerular filtration of unbound drug at the renal corpuscle
C. Passive reabsorption throughout the entire nephron
D. Hepatic conversion to active metabolites
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Glomerular filtration of unbound (free) drug at the renal corpuscle is the major route of renal drug excretion, so
reduced creatinine clearance prolongs half-life of filtered drugs like vancomycin. Active secretion occurs in the
proximal tubule, not the collecting duct, so the alternative misstates the location.
BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027) Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct - Portage
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OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027)
Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100%
Correct - Portage Learning 2026/2027
2026/2027 Official Exam
100 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics Endocrine & Reproductive Pharmacology
Autonomic & CNS Pharmacology Anti-infectives & Chemotherapy
Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology Nursing Implications & Patient Education
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics | Q1-Q17 | BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027) Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct - Portage Learning 2026/2027 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 68-year-old male receives an intravenous dose of gentamicin for a Gram-negative
infection. The nurse understands that the volume of distribution of this hydrophilic drug is
largely confined to which body compartment?
A. Extracellular fluid due to high water solubility
B. Adipose tissue due to high lipid solubility
C. Intracellular fluid due to active transport
D. Cerebrospinal fluid due to passive diffusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin are highly water-soluble and distribute primarily in extracellular fluid,
giving them a relatively small volume of distribution. Lipid-soluble drugs distribute into adipose tissue and have
a larger volume of distribution, so that alternative misstates the physicochemical driver.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
A 55-year-old female takes oral levothyroxine and asks her nurse practitioner about calcium
supplement timing. The stomach absorbs only a few drugs because of which anatomic
feature that limits absorption there?
A. Villi and microvilli creating a large absorptive surface area
B. Thick mucus layer and limited surface area
C. High concentration of cytochrome P450 enzymes
D. Low pH that activates prodrugs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The stomach has a thick mucus layer and limited surface area, so only a few weakly acidic drugs are absorbed
there, while most absorption occurs in the small intestine with its villi and microvilli. Calcium supplements can
chelate levothyroxine in the gut, reducing its absorption and necessitating separation of doses by at least 4
hours.
BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027) Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct - Portage
Page
Learning
2 of 54 2026/2027 - 2
, Q3 Question 3 of 100
A 42-year-old male receives IV morphine for postoperative pain, and the nurse recognizes
that morphine has low oral bioavailability due to extensive first-pass metabolism. First-pass
metabolism occurs primarily in which organ?
A. The lungs, via pulmonary endothelial enzymes
B. The kidneys, via glomerular filtration
C. The liver, via the portal circulation before systemic distribution
D. The stomach, via gastric acid hydrolysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
First-pass metabolism describes hepatic metabolism of orally administered drugs before they reach systemic
circulation, significantly reducing bioavailability of drugs like morphine and propranolol. Renal filtration occurs
after systemic distribution, so the alternative mislocates the metabolic site.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
A 72-year-old female with hepatic cirrhosis is started on a benzodiazepine and the dose is
reduced because phase I metabolism is impaired. Phase I hepatic metabolism primarily
involves which biochemical reactions?
A. Biliary excretion of unchanged parent drug
B. Conjugation with glucuronic acid or sulfate
C. Active tubular secretion into the renal proximal tubule
D. Oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis catalyzed by cytochrome P450
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Phase I metabolism involves oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis frequently catalyzed by cytochrome P450
enzymes, and is impaired in older adults and liver disease. Conjugation reactions are Phase II, which is
relatively preserved in aging, so the alternative misclassifies the metabolic phase.
BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027) Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct - Portage
Page
Learning
3 of 54 2026/2027 - 2
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
A neonate receives morphine for postoperative analgesia and the dose must be reduced
because glucuronidation is immature at birth. Phase II hepatic metabolism primarily
accomplishes which pharmacokinetic outcome?
A. Conjugation with glucuronide, sulfate, or glycine to increase water solubility for renal
excretion
B. Oxidation by cytochrome P450 enzymes to activate prodrugs
C. Active transport across the blood-brain barrier
D. Plasma protein binding to albumin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Phase II metabolism conjugates drugs with polar groups such as glucuronide, sulfate, or glycine, increasing
water solubility and facilitating renal or biliary excretion. Cytochrome P450 catalyzes Phase I oxidation
reactions, not Phase II, so the alternative confuses the metabolic phases.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
A 60-year-old male with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine clearance of 25 mL/min and
is prescribed vancomycin. The dose interval is extended because renal drug elimination
depends primarily on which process?
A. Active tubular secretion in the collecting duct only
B. Glomerular filtration of unbound drug at the renal corpuscle
C. Passive reabsorption throughout the entire nephron
D. Hepatic conversion to active metabolites
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Glomerular filtration of unbound (free) drug at the renal corpuscle is the major route of renal drug excretion, so
reduced creatinine clearance prolongs half-life of filtered drugs like vancomycin. Active secretion occurs in the
proximal tubule, not the collecting duct, so the alternative misstates the location.
BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027) Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct - Portage
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