ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor NGN
Form A, B & C (2026) | Comprehensive Study
Guide | Practice Questions, Verified Answers
& NCLEX-RN Exam Prep
ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NGN FORM A, B & C (2026)
Comprehensive Study Guide | Practice Questions, Verified Answers & NCLEX-
RN Exam Prep
OVERVIEW & STUDY FEATURES:
• This comprehensive question bank contains 200 carefully vetted multiple-choice
questions designed to mirror the NGN format, testing critical thinking, clinical
judgment, and application of nursing knowledge across all major content areas of
the NCLEX-RN examination.
• Study this material by working through questions systematically, reviewing
detailed rationales for both correct and incorrect options, identifying knowledge
gaps, and utilizing spaced repetition for retention—aim to achieve 85%+ accuracy
before attempting the actual VATI or NCLEX-RN exam.
QUESTIONS 1–200
1. A 58-year-old client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) presents to the emergency department with shortness of
breath and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. The client has a 40-
year history of smoking. Which of the following nursing interventions is the
PRIORITY?
A) Initiate chest physiotherapy immediately
B) Position client in high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen
C) Obtain a chest X-ray
D) Administer bronchodilators via nebulizer
E) Call respiratory therapy to perform intubation
,✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Position client in high Fowler's position and apply
supplemental oxygen
RATIONALE: High Fowler's position facilitates optimal lung expansion and reduces
the work of breathing, which is the priority intervention for a client in respiratory
distress. Supplemental oxygen is essential to improve oxygenation. While other
interventions such as bronchodilators and chest physiotherapy are important, they
are not the immediate priority when a client is experiencing acute respiratory
distress. Intubation is not indicated at this time without first attempting less
invasive measures.
2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute myocardial
infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would the nurse expect to be
ELEVATED?
A) Troponin I and CK-MB
B) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C) Creatinine and BUN
D) Albumin and prealbumin
E) Platelet count and white blood cells
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: A) Troponin I and CK-MB
RATIONALE: Troponin I and CK-MB (creatine kinase-myocardial band) are cardiac-
specific biomarkers that are released when myocardial tissue is damaged. These
enzymes are the most sensitive and specific indicators of myocardial infarction.
Troponin I begins to rise within 2–4 hours after MI onset and peaks at 24–48 hours.
CK-MB also rises within 3–12 hours. The other values listed are not specific
indicators of MI.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with severe hypokalemia (K+ 2.8 mEq/L). Which
cardiac dysrhythmia would the nurse MOST LIKELY observe on the cardiac
monitor?
,A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Premature ventricular contractions with U waves
D) Complete heart block
E) Sinus tachycardia
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Premature ventricular contractions with U waves
RATIONALE: Severe hypokalemia causes characteristic ECG changes including a
prolonged QT interval, flattened T waves, and prominent U waves. Premature
ventricular contractions (PVCs) are common dysrhythmias associated with
hypokalemia due to increased myocardial irritability. U waves are particularly
characteristic of low serum potassium. While atrial fibrillation and other
dysrhythmias can occur, the combination of PVCs with U waves is most classic for
hypokalemia.
4. A client receives a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse is
providing education about diet and exercise. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should check my blood glucose before and after exercise"
B) "I can eat whatever I want as long as I exercise regularly"
C) "I should consume carbohydrates within 15 minutes if I experience
hypoglycemia"
D) "I need to wear identification indicating I have diabetes"
E) "I should increase my physical activity gradually"
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) "I can eat whatever I want as long as I exercise
regularly"
RATIONALE: This statement is INCORRECT and indicates the need for further
teaching. While exercise is important for glucose management, diet is equally
critical in managing Type 2 diabetes. The client must follow a balanced, portion-
, controlled diet low in simple sugars and refined carbohydrates. Exercise alone
cannot compensate for an uncontrolled diet. All other statements are correct—
checking glucose before/after exercise, consuming fast-acting carbohydrates for
hypoglycemia, wearing medical identification, and gradually increasing exercise are
all appropriate diabetes management strategies.
5. A nurse is administering an intravenous medication to a client. The IV line
has become infiltrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
FIRST?
A) Apply a warm compress to the infiltration site
B) Stop the infusion immediately and remove the IV catheter
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Elevate the affected extremity
E) Document the incident in the client's medical record
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Stop the infusion immediately and remove the IV
catheter
RATIONALE: The first action is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further
tissue damage from the infiltrated fluid. The IV catheter should be removed
promptly. After stopping the infusion and removing the catheter, the nurse should
assess the site, apply appropriate interventions such as elevation and warm or cold
compresses depending on the type of infiltrated fluid, and document the incident.
Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary if significant tissue damage has
occurred, but the immediate action is to stop the infusion and remove the catheter.
6. A client diagnosed with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal
cannula at 3 L/min. The client's oxygen saturation is 88% (normal is 95–100%).
Which nursing action is MOST APPROPRIATE?
A) Increase oxygen to 5 L/min via nasal cannula
Form A, B & C (2026) | Comprehensive Study
Guide | Practice Questions, Verified Answers
& NCLEX-RN Exam Prep
ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NGN FORM A, B & C (2026)
Comprehensive Study Guide | Practice Questions, Verified Answers & NCLEX-
RN Exam Prep
OVERVIEW & STUDY FEATURES:
• This comprehensive question bank contains 200 carefully vetted multiple-choice
questions designed to mirror the NGN format, testing critical thinking, clinical
judgment, and application of nursing knowledge across all major content areas of
the NCLEX-RN examination.
• Study this material by working through questions systematically, reviewing
detailed rationales for both correct and incorrect options, identifying knowledge
gaps, and utilizing spaced repetition for retention—aim to achieve 85%+ accuracy
before attempting the actual VATI or NCLEX-RN exam.
QUESTIONS 1–200
1. A 58-year-old client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) presents to the emergency department with shortness of
breath and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. The client has a 40-
year history of smoking. Which of the following nursing interventions is the
PRIORITY?
A) Initiate chest physiotherapy immediately
B) Position client in high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen
C) Obtain a chest X-ray
D) Administer bronchodilators via nebulizer
E) Call respiratory therapy to perform intubation
,✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Position client in high Fowler's position and apply
supplemental oxygen
RATIONALE: High Fowler's position facilitates optimal lung expansion and reduces
the work of breathing, which is the priority intervention for a client in respiratory
distress. Supplemental oxygen is essential to improve oxygenation. While other
interventions such as bronchodilators and chest physiotherapy are important, they
are not the immediate priority when a client is experiencing acute respiratory
distress. Intubation is not indicated at this time without first attempting less
invasive measures.
2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute myocardial
infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would the nurse expect to be
ELEVATED?
A) Troponin I and CK-MB
B) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C) Creatinine and BUN
D) Albumin and prealbumin
E) Platelet count and white blood cells
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: A) Troponin I and CK-MB
RATIONALE: Troponin I and CK-MB (creatine kinase-myocardial band) are cardiac-
specific biomarkers that are released when myocardial tissue is damaged. These
enzymes are the most sensitive and specific indicators of myocardial infarction.
Troponin I begins to rise within 2–4 hours after MI onset and peaks at 24–48 hours.
CK-MB also rises within 3–12 hours. The other values listed are not specific
indicators of MI.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with severe hypokalemia (K+ 2.8 mEq/L). Which
cardiac dysrhythmia would the nurse MOST LIKELY observe on the cardiac
monitor?
,A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Premature ventricular contractions with U waves
D) Complete heart block
E) Sinus tachycardia
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Premature ventricular contractions with U waves
RATIONALE: Severe hypokalemia causes characteristic ECG changes including a
prolonged QT interval, flattened T waves, and prominent U waves. Premature
ventricular contractions (PVCs) are common dysrhythmias associated with
hypokalemia due to increased myocardial irritability. U waves are particularly
characteristic of low serum potassium. While atrial fibrillation and other
dysrhythmias can occur, the combination of PVCs with U waves is most classic for
hypokalemia.
4. A client receives a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse is
providing education about diet and exercise. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should check my blood glucose before and after exercise"
B) "I can eat whatever I want as long as I exercise regularly"
C) "I should consume carbohydrates within 15 minutes if I experience
hypoglycemia"
D) "I need to wear identification indicating I have diabetes"
E) "I should increase my physical activity gradually"
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) "I can eat whatever I want as long as I exercise
regularly"
RATIONALE: This statement is INCORRECT and indicates the need for further
teaching. While exercise is important for glucose management, diet is equally
critical in managing Type 2 diabetes. The client must follow a balanced, portion-
, controlled diet low in simple sugars and refined carbohydrates. Exercise alone
cannot compensate for an uncontrolled diet. All other statements are correct—
checking glucose before/after exercise, consuming fast-acting carbohydrates for
hypoglycemia, wearing medical identification, and gradually increasing exercise are
all appropriate diabetes management strategies.
5. A nurse is administering an intravenous medication to a client. The IV line
has become infiltrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
FIRST?
A) Apply a warm compress to the infiltration site
B) Stop the infusion immediately and remove the IV catheter
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Elevate the affected extremity
E) Document the incident in the client's medical record
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Stop the infusion immediately and remove the IV
catheter
RATIONALE: The first action is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further
tissue damage from the infiltrated fluid. The IV catheter should be removed
promptly. After stopping the infusion and removing the catheter, the nurse should
assess the site, apply appropriate interventions such as elevation and warm or cold
compresses depending on the type of infiltrated fluid, and document the incident.
Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary if significant tissue damage has
occurred, but the immediate action is to stop the infusion and remove the catheter.
6. A client diagnosed with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal
cannula at 3 L/min. The client's oxygen saturation is 88% (normal is 95–100%).
Which nursing action is MOST APPROPRIATE?
A) Increase oxygen to 5 L/min via nasal cannula
