NR 602
FINAL EXAM
Verified Questions & Answers With Rationales
(Primary Care of the Childbearing
and Childrearing Family)
Chamberlain
CONSISTS OF 100+ QUESTIONS
WEEKS 5 – 8 COVERED
,1. A school-age child has recurrent diarrhea w/foul-smelling stools, excessive
flatus, abd distention, and FTT. A 2-week lactose-free trial failed to reduce sx.
What is the next step in diagnosing this condition?
A. Begin empiric antibiotics
B. Serologic testing for celiac disease
C. Start lifelong lactose restriction
D. Order immediate appendectomy
Correct Answer:
B. Serologic testing for celiac disease
Rationale:
Chronic foul-smelling diarrhea, abdominal distention, flatulence, and failure to
thrive suggest malabsorption. If lactose avoidance does not help, celiac disease
should be evaluated with serologic testing while the child is still eating gluten.
2. A healthy 14-year-old female has a dipstick urinalysis that is positive for 5-6
RBCs per hpf but otherwise normal. What is the first question the primary care
pediatric nurse practitioner will ask this patient?
A. “Have you had recent chest pain?”
B. “When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?”
C. “Do you have a history of asthma?”
D. “Have you received rotavirus vaccine?”
Correct Answer:
B. “When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?”
Rationale:
Menstrual contamination is a common benign cause of microscopic hematuria in
adolescent females. Menstrual history should be assessed before initiating an
extensive workup.
3. What hormone has been shown to help with relieving the mood discomfort
cluster of symptoms of PMS?
A. Progesterone
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
,Correct Answer:
A. Progesterone
Rationale:
PMS symptoms are hormonally mediated and occur during the luteal phase. The
exam answer identifies progesterone as helpful for mood-discomfort symptoms,
although current clinical treatment often emphasizes SSRIs, lifestyle measures,
and selected hormonal therapies depending on severity.
4. Which of the following is a diagnostic label that is listed in the Diagnostic and
Statistical Manual IV-TR?
A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B. Primary dysmenorrhea
C. Mittelschmerz
D. Endometrial hyperplasia
Correct Answer:
A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Rationale:
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is the psychiatric diagnostic label used for severe
cyclic mood symptoms associated with the menstrual cycle.
5. The least variation in menses occurs during the ages of:
A. 10-15
B. 20-40
C. 45-55
D. After menopause
Correct Answer:
B. 20-40
Rationale:
Menstrual cycles are typically most regular during the reproductive years after
adolescence and before perimenopause.
6. All menstruating women report that which type of symptoms is highest
during menses?
A. Respiratory
B. Gastrointestinal
, C. Neurologic paralysis
D. Urinary retention
Correct Answer:
B. Gastrointestinal
Rationale:
Menstruation can be associated with prostaglandin-related gastrointestinal
symptoms such as nausea, cramping, bloating, and diarrhea.
7. A 6-month-old infant has a retractile testis that was noted at the 2-month
well baby exam. What will the NP do to manage this condition?
A. Reassure only and wait until puberty
B. Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist or surgeon for possible orchiopexy
C. Prescribe antibiotics
D. Begin testosterone therapy in primary care
Correct Answer:
B. Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist or surgeon for possible orchiopexy
Rationale:
A testis that remains undescended or concerning after infancy requires specialty
evaluation because persistent cryptorchidism increases risk for infertility and
malignancy. True retractile testes may be observed, but persistent abnormal
position warrants referral.
8. Gonadotropin hormone-releasing agonists are recommended for only short-
term use to treat heavy bleeding due to:
A. Their many side effects, such as hot flashes
B. Their ability to cure all bleeding permanently
C. Their lack of effect on hormones
D. Their risk of causing bacterial infection
Correct Answer:
A. Their many side effects, such as hot flashes
Rationale:
GnRH agonists suppress ovarian hormones and can cause hypoestrogenic adverse
effects such as hot flashes, mood changes, vaginal dryness, and bone loss, limiting
long-term use.
FINAL EXAM
Verified Questions & Answers With Rationales
(Primary Care of the Childbearing
and Childrearing Family)
Chamberlain
CONSISTS OF 100+ QUESTIONS
WEEKS 5 – 8 COVERED
,1. A school-age child has recurrent diarrhea w/foul-smelling stools, excessive
flatus, abd distention, and FTT. A 2-week lactose-free trial failed to reduce sx.
What is the next step in diagnosing this condition?
A. Begin empiric antibiotics
B. Serologic testing for celiac disease
C. Start lifelong lactose restriction
D. Order immediate appendectomy
Correct Answer:
B. Serologic testing for celiac disease
Rationale:
Chronic foul-smelling diarrhea, abdominal distention, flatulence, and failure to
thrive suggest malabsorption. If lactose avoidance does not help, celiac disease
should be evaluated with serologic testing while the child is still eating gluten.
2. A healthy 14-year-old female has a dipstick urinalysis that is positive for 5-6
RBCs per hpf but otherwise normal. What is the first question the primary care
pediatric nurse practitioner will ask this patient?
A. “Have you had recent chest pain?”
B. “When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?”
C. “Do you have a history of asthma?”
D. “Have you received rotavirus vaccine?”
Correct Answer:
B. “When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?”
Rationale:
Menstrual contamination is a common benign cause of microscopic hematuria in
adolescent females. Menstrual history should be assessed before initiating an
extensive workup.
3. What hormone has been shown to help with relieving the mood discomfort
cluster of symptoms of PMS?
A. Progesterone
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
,Correct Answer:
A. Progesterone
Rationale:
PMS symptoms are hormonally mediated and occur during the luteal phase. The
exam answer identifies progesterone as helpful for mood-discomfort symptoms,
although current clinical treatment often emphasizes SSRIs, lifestyle measures,
and selected hormonal therapies depending on severity.
4. Which of the following is a diagnostic label that is listed in the Diagnostic and
Statistical Manual IV-TR?
A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B. Primary dysmenorrhea
C. Mittelschmerz
D. Endometrial hyperplasia
Correct Answer:
A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Rationale:
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is the psychiatric diagnostic label used for severe
cyclic mood symptoms associated with the menstrual cycle.
5. The least variation in menses occurs during the ages of:
A. 10-15
B. 20-40
C. 45-55
D. After menopause
Correct Answer:
B. 20-40
Rationale:
Menstrual cycles are typically most regular during the reproductive years after
adolescence and before perimenopause.
6. All menstruating women report that which type of symptoms is highest
during menses?
A. Respiratory
B. Gastrointestinal
, C. Neurologic paralysis
D. Urinary retention
Correct Answer:
B. Gastrointestinal
Rationale:
Menstruation can be associated with prostaglandin-related gastrointestinal
symptoms such as nausea, cramping, bloating, and diarrhea.
7. A 6-month-old infant has a retractile testis that was noted at the 2-month
well baby exam. What will the NP do to manage this condition?
A. Reassure only and wait until puberty
B. Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist or surgeon for possible orchiopexy
C. Prescribe antibiotics
D. Begin testosterone therapy in primary care
Correct Answer:
B. Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist or surgeon for possible orchiopexy
Rationale:
A testis that remains undescended or concerning after infancy requires specialty
evaluation because persistent cryptorchidism increases risk for infertility and
malignancy. True retractile testes may be observed, but persistent abnormal
position warrants referral.
8. Gonadotropin hormone-releasing agonists are recommended for only short-
term use to treat heavy bleeding due to:
A. Their many side effects, such as hot flashes
B. Their ability to cure all bleeding permanently
C. Their lack of effect on hormones
D. Their risk of causing bacterial infection
Correct Answer:
A. Their many side effects, such as hot flashes
Rationale:
GnRH agonists suppress ovarian hormones and can cause hypoestrogenic adverse
effects such as hot flashes, mood changes, vaginal dryness, and bone loss, limiting
long-term use.
