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NR 601 Final Exam – Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family Practicum – (2026) Actual Questions & Answers (Chamberlain) 100% Guarantee Pass

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NR 601 Final Exam Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family Practicum questions and answers for Chamberlain students. This verified study document includes 150 questions with rationales and covers Weeks 5 through 8 for focused final exam preparation. NR 601 Final Exam, NR 601 Primary Care, NR 601 Chamberlain, NR 601 actual questions, NR 601 correct answers, NR 601 final exam prep, NR 601 study guide, NR 601 test bank, Chamberlain NR 601 Final Exam, Chamberlain Primary Care Practicum, Primary Care Maturing Aged Family, Primary Care questions, Primary Care answers, NR 601 Final Exam answers, NR 601 nursing exam 2026, NR 601 practice questions, NR 601 exam review, Chamberlain University NR 601, NR 601 Weeks 5 through 8, NR 601 verified answers, NR601 Final Exam, NR601 answers, NR 601 PDF, maturing aged family exam, aged family practicum final exam, NR 601 verified questions, NR 601 Final Exam PDF, NR 601 rationales, Chamberlain NR601 final prep, NR601 Week 5 6 7 8

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NR 601
FINAL EXAM
Verified Questions & Answers With Rationales
(Primary Care of the Maturing and
Aged Family Practicum)

Chamberlain

CONSISTS OF 150 QUESTIONS
WEEKS 5 – 8 COVERED

,1. A 58-year-old reports polyuria and blurred vision. Fasting glucose is 131 mg/dL
today and 128 mg/dL last week. Best next step?
A. Repeat fasting glucose in 1 year
B. Diagnose type 2 diabetes mellitus and begin management
C. Diagnose impaired fasting glucose only
D. Order no further testing
Correct Answer:
B. Diagnose type 2 diabetes mellitus and begin management

Rationale:
Two fasting plasma glucose values ≥126 mg/dL confirm diabetes. Polyuria and blurred
vision are classic hyperglycemia symptoms, so management should begin.
2. A 60-year-old has random glucose 225 mg/dL and classic symptoms (polyuria,
polydipsia). What is most accurate?
A. Diabetes can be diagnosed now
B. Diabetes cannot be diagnosed without A1C
C. This represents normal aging
D. Repeat testing is required for 6 months
Correct Answer:
A. Diabetes can be diagnosed now

Rationale:
Random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL with classic symptoms is diagnostic of diabetes.
3. A newly diagnosed T2DM patient asks for first-line medication. Most
appropriate?
A. Metformin
B. Methimazole
C. Donepezil
D. Tamsulosin
Correct Answer:
A. Metformin

Rationale:
Metformin is commonly used as initial therapy for type 2 diabetes unless
contraindicated, especially when no cardiorenal indication requires another first-line
agent.
4. A patient asks how metformin works. Best explanation?
A. Increases hepatic glucose output
B. Reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity
C. Stimulates thyroid hormone production
D. Blocks dopamine receptors

,Correct Answer:
B. Reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity

Rationale:
Metformin primarily decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves peripheral insulin
sensitivity.
5. A patient has eGFR 25 mL/min. Which diabetes medication should be avoided?
A. Metformin
B. Semaglutide
C. Insulin glargine
D. Empagliflozin
Correct Answer:
A. Metformin

Rationale:
Metformin is avoided in severe renal impairment because reduced clearance increases
the risk of lactic acidosis.
6. A patient with T2DM and HF needs add-on therapy with cardio/renal benefit.
Best option?
A. SGLT2 inhibitor (empagliflozin)
B. Sulfonylurea only
C. Pioglitazone
D. Acarbose
Correct Answer:
A. SGLT2 inhibitor (empagliflozin)

Rationale:
SGLT2 inhibitors reduce heart failure hospitalization and slow kidney disease
progression in appropriate patients with T2DM.
7. A patient on an SGLT2 inhibitor has nausea, abdominal pain, anion gap
metabolic acidosis, glucose 165. Most concerning diagnosis?
A. Euglycemic DKA
B. Hypothyroidism
C. GERD
D. BPH
Correct Answer:
A. Euglycemic DKA

Rationale:
SGLT2 inhibitors can cause diabetic ketoacidosis with only mildly elevated or near-
normal glucose levels.

, 8. A patient starting an SGLT2 inhibitor should be counseled about which
common adverse effect?
A. Genitourinary infections
B. Severe bradycardia
C. Hearing loss
D. Prostate shrinkage
Correct Answer:
A. Genitourinary infections

Rationale:
SGLT2 inhibitors increase urinary glucose excretion, which raises risk for genital
mycotic infections and some urinary infections.
9. A patient wants diabetes medication that supports weight loss and CV benefit.
Best class?
A. GLP-1 receptor agonist (semaglutide)
B. Thiazolidinedione
C. Sulfonylurea
D. Alpha-blocker
Correct Answer:
A. GLP-1 receptor agonist (semaglutide)

Rationale:
GLP-1 receptor agonists improve glycemic control, promote weight loss, and some
agents have cardiovascular benefit.
10. A patient with edema and HF symptoms worsens after starting pioglitazone.
Why?
A. TZDs can cause fluid retention and worsen HF
B. TZDs always cause dehydration
C. TZDs shrink the prostate
D. TZDs treat acute DKA
Correct Answer:
A. TZDs can cause fluid retention and worsen HF

Rationale:
Thiazolidinediones can cause sodium and fluid retention, which may exacerbate heart
failure.
11. A patient’s A1C goal should be relaxed due to age/comorbidities. Which target
is most appropriate?
A. < 5%
B. < 6%
C. < 8%
D. > 12%

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