MATERNAL AND
CHILD
HEALTH NURSING
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MCQ PRACTICE BANK
200 Questions with 4 Options (A-D)
Complete Answer Key Included
200 QUESTIONS • 4 OPTIONS EACH • ANSWER KEY
Instructions: Read each question carefully and select the best answer.
Use active recall before checking the answer key at the end.
,PRACTICE QUESTIONS
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Q1. The recommended number of antenatal visits for a low-risk pregnancy is:
A. 4 visits
B. 8 visits
C. 12 visits
D. 16 visits
Q2. Naegele's Rule calculates the estimated date of delivery by:
A. Adding 7 days and 9 months to the first day of LMP
B. Adding 14 days and 9 months to the first day of LMP
C. Adding 7 days and subtracting 3 months from the first day of LMP
D. Adding 14 days to the last day of LMP
Q3. The normal duration of pregnancy is:
A. 36 weeks
B. 38 weeks
C. 40 weeks
D. 42 weeks
Q4. Folic acid supplementation should ideally begin:
A. At the first antenatal visit
B. At 12 weeks gestation
C. 1 month before conception
D. At 20 weeks gestation
Q5. The recommended daily iron intake during pregnancy is:
A. 15 mg
B. 27 mg
C. 45 mg
D. 60 mg
Q6. Anemia in pregnancy is defined as hemoglobin less than:
A. 9 g/dL
B. 10 g/dL
C. 11 g/dL
D. 12 g/dL
Q7. The optimal time for the anatomy ultrasound scan is:
A. 8-12 weeks
B. 12-16 weeks
C. 18-22 weeks
D. 28-32 weeks
Q8. Group B Streptococcus screening is performed at:
A. 24-28 weeks
B. 28-32 weeks
C. 35-37 weeks
D. 38-40 weeks
,Q9. The first-line treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum includes:
A. Oral rehydration only
B. IV fluids and antiemetics
C. Surgery
D. High-dose steroids
Q10. Preeclampsia is characterized by:
A. Hypertension only after 20 weeks
B. Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks
C. Proteinuria only before 20 weeks
D. Hypertension and glycosuria after 20 weeks
Q11. The drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Phenobarbital
Q12. The antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is:
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
Q13. Gestational diabetes screening is performed at:
A. 12-16 weeks
B. 18-22 weeks
C. 24-28 weeks
D. 32-36 weeks
Q14. The diagnostic criteria for gestational diabetes include a fasting glucose of:
A. >= 80 mg/dL
B. >= 92 mg/dL
C. >= 100 mg/dL
D. >= 126 mg/dL
Q15. Which of the following antibiotics is SAFE in pregnancy?
A. Tetracycline
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Penicillin
D. Chloramphenicol
Q16. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy because they cause:
A. Neural tube defects
B. Fetal renal failure and oligohydramnios
C. Cardiac defects
D. Cleft palate
Q17. The recommended weight gain for a woman with normal BMI during pregnancy is:
A. 5-9 kg
B. 7-11.5 kg
C. 11.5-16 kg
D. 12.5-18 kg
, Q18. Which vitamin is crucial for preventing neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin D
Q19. The Ballard Score is used to assess:
A. Fetal heart rate patterns
B. Gestational age of the newborn
C. Maternal blood loss
D. Cervical dilation
Q20. A positive urine dipstick for protein in pregnancy is defined as:
A. Trace protein
B. 1+ or greater
C. 2+ or greater
D. 3+ or greater
Q21. The first stage of labor is defined as:
A. Full dilation to birth of baby
B. Onset of regular contractions to full cervical dilation
C. Birth of baby to delivery of placenta
D. Delivery of placenta to 2 hours postpartum
Q22. The normal fetal heart rate baseline is:
A. 80-120 bpm
B. 100-140 bpm
C. 110-160 bpm
D. 120-180 bpm
Q23. Moderate variability in fetal heart rate is defined as:
A. 0-5 bpm
B. 5-10 bpm
C. 6-25 bpm
D. >25 bpm
Q24. Early decelerations are caused by:
A. Uteroplacental insufficiency
B. Fetal head compression
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Maternal hypotension
Q25. Late decelerations indicate:
A. Benign fetal response
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Cord compression
D. Fetal sleep cycle
Q26. Variable decelerations are caused by:
A. Head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Maternal fever
CHILD
HEALTH NURSING
━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━
MCQ PRACTICE BANK
200 Questions with 4 Options (A-D)
Complete Answer Key Included
200 QUESTIONS • 4 OPTIONS EACH • ANSWER KEY
Instructions: Read each question carefully and select the best answer.
Use active recall before checking the answer key at the end.
,PRACTICE QUESTIONS
━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━
━━━━━━━━━━━━
Q1. The recommended number of antenatal visits for a low-risk pregnancy is:
A. 4 visits
B. 8 visits
C. 12 visits
D. 16 visits
Q2. Naegele's Rule calculates the estimated date of delivery by:
A. Adding 7 days and 9 months to the first day of LMP
B. Adding 14 days and 9 months to the first day of LMP
C. Adding 7 days and subtracting 3 months from the first day of LMP
D. Adding 14 days to the last day of LMP
Q3. The normal duration of pregnancy is:
A. 36 weeks
B. 38 weeks
C. 40 weeks
D. 42 weeks
Q4. Folic acid supplementation should ideally begin:
A. At the first antenatal visit
B. At 12 weeks gestation
C. 1 month before conception
D. At 20 weeks gestation
Q5. The recommended daily iron intake during pregnancy is:
A. 15 mg
B. 27 mg
C. 45 mg
D. 60 mg
Q6. Anemia in pregnancy is defined as hemoglobin less than:
A. 9 g/dL
B. 10 g/dL
C. 11 g/dL
D. 12 g/dL
Q7. The optimal time for the anatomy ultrasound scan is:
A. 8-12 weeks
B. 12-16 weeks
C. 18-22 weeks
D. 28-32 weeks
Q8. Group B Streptococcus screening is performed at:
A. 24-28 weeks
B. 28-32 weeks
C. 35-37 weeks
D. 38-40 weeks
,Q9. The first-line treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum includes:
A. Oral rehydration only
B. IV fluids and antiemetics
C. Surgery
D. High-dose steroids
Q10. Preeclampsia is characterized by:
A. Hypertension only after 20 weeks
B. Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks
C. Proteinuria only before 20 weeks
D. Hypertension and glycosuria after 20 weeks
Q11. The drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Phenobarbital
Q12. The antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is:
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
Q13. Gestational diabetes screening is performed at:
A. 12-16 weeks
B. 18-22 weeks
C. 24-28 weeks
D. 32-36 weeks
Q14. The diagnostic criteria for gestational diabetes include a fasting glucose of:
A. >= 80 mg/dL
B. >= 92 mg/dL
C. >= 100 mg/dL
D. >= 126 mg/dL
Q15. Which of the following antibiotics is SAFE in pregnancy?
A. Tetracycline
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Penicillin
D. Chloramphenicol
Q16. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy because they cause:
A. Neural tube defects
B. Fetal renal failure and oligohydramnios
C. Cardiac defects
D. Cleft palate
Q17. The recommended weight gain for a woman with normal BMI during pregnancy is:
A. 5-9 kg
B. 7-11.5 kg
C. 11.5-16 kg
D. 12.5-18 kg
, Q18. Which vitamin is crucial for preventing neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin D
Q19. The Ballard Score is used to assess:
A. Fetal heart rate patterns
B. Gestational age of the newborn
C. Maternal blood loss
D. Cervical dilation
Q20. A positive urine dipstick for protein in pregnancy is defined as:
A. Trace protein
B. 1+ or greater
C. 2+ or greater
D. 3+ or greater
Q21. The first stage of labor is defined as:
A. Full dilation to birth of baby
B. Onset of regular contractions to full cervical dilation
C. Birth of baby to delivery of placenta
D. Delivery of placenta to 2 hours postpartum
Q22. The normal fetal heart rate baseline is:
A. 80-120 bpm
B. 100-140 bpm
C. 110-160 bpm
D. 120-180 bpm
Q23. Moderate variability in fetal heart rate is defined as:
A. 0-5 bpm
B. 5-10 bpm
C. 6-25 bpm
D. >25 bpm
Q24. Early decelerations are caused by:
A. Uteroplacental insufficiency
B. Fetal head compression
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Maternal hypotension
Q25. Late decelerations indicate:
A. Benign fetal response
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Cord compression
D. Fetal sleep cycle
Q26. Variable decelerations are caused by:
A. Head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Maternal fever
