CEA Prep Full Practice Exam
2026 Exam Questions and
Correct Answers | New Update
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever.
Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation
adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above
the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent
of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
,*Left lower lobe - ANSWER ✔✔Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If
the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is
either right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses? - ANSWER
✔✔Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the
diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with
thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed
with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH
(Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more,
but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to
prescribe him? - ANSWER ✔✔Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines
should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such
as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
,Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for
serial surveillance? - ANSWER ✔✔CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? -
ANSWER ✔✔phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the
most likely diagnosis? - ANSWER ✔✔Congestive heart failure
3
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STATEMENT. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
, Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is
congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up
with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have
an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient
has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection
fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal
medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will
manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would
you expect to be a priority in the patient's care? - ANSWER
✔✔Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is
less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if
the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days
2026 Exam Questions and
Correct Answers | New Update
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever.
Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation
adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above
the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent
of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
,*Left lower lobe - ANSWER ✔✔Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If
the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is
either right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses? - ANSWER
✔✔Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the
diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with
thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed
with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH
(Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more,
but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to
prescribe him? - ANSWER ✔✔Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines
should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such
as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
,Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for
serial surveillance? - ANSWER ✔✔CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? -
ANSWER ✔✔phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the
most likely diagnosis? - ANSWER ✔✔Congestive heart failure
3
COPYRIGHT©JOSHCLAY 2025/2026. YEAR PUBLISHED 2026. COMPANY REGISTRATION NUMBER: 619652435. TERMS OF USE. PRIVACY
STATEMENT. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
, Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is
congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up
with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have
an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient
has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection
fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal
medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will
manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would
you expect to be a priority in the patient's care? - ANSWER
✔✔Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is
less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if
the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days
