, TESTBANK FOR Pharmacotherapeutics First Edition Demler
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
Quizzes, Midterm and final exams are included (if available in the original resources).
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
⚠️Note on Answer Keys: If the answer key is not included within the chapter
questions, you will find the complete answers and solutions at the end of each
chapter.
✅ Why Buy From Us?
📚 Complete & organized chapter-by-chapter – no missing content, no guessing.
⚡ Instant digital delivery – get your file the moment you pay, no waiting.
📅 Always up to date – we track new editions so you always get the latest version.
💬 Friendly support – real humans ready to help, anytime you need us.
🔒 Safe & secure – thousands of satisfied students trust us every semester.
🛡️Our Guarantees
💰 Money-Back Guarantee: Not satisfied? We offer a full refund – no questions asked.
🔄 Wrong File? No Problem: Contact us and we will replace it immediately with the
correct version, free of charge.
⏰ 24/7 Support: We are always here – reach out anytime and expect a fast response.
, Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice –
Test Bank
Demler_Ch01-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. In the stomach, histamine is released by:
a. parietal cells.
✓ b. enterochromaffin-like cells.
c. chief cells.
d. mucoid cells.
2. The first drugs typically used to treat the symptoms of an allergic reaction or allergic
rhinitis are:
a. oral H 1 antihistamines.
b. intranasal H 1 antihistamines.
✓ c. H 2 antihistamines.
d. H 3 antihistamines.
3. Some first-generation antihistamines are used:
a. as stimulants.
✓ b. to prevent motion sickness.
c. as anticonvulsants.
d. as laxatives.
4. Which of the following is a side effect of first-generation antihistamines related to their
anticholinergic activity?
a. Blurry vision
b. Diarrhea
✓ c. Cognitive disturbances
d. Nausea
5. Compared to first-generation antihistamines, second-generation antihistamines:
✓ a. are less able to penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
b. have fewer muscarinic effects.
c. have greater anticholinergic effects.
d. are more likely to cause drowsiness.
6. Second-generation antihistamines are preferred for treating which patient category?
✓ a. Children
b. Women
c. Patients with hypertension
d. Patients with insomnia
,7. Which type of antihistamines are used to inhibit the secretion of gastric acid in patients
with gastrointestinal disorders?
a. H 1
✓ b. H 2
c. H 3
d. H 4
8. Toxicity of antihistamines has been reported in incidents of interactions with:
a. kidney function.
b. neurotransmitter activity.
✓ c. liver enzymes.
d. diabetes medications.
9. Eosinophils, neutrophils, and T cells contain the type of histamine receptors referred to as
____.
✎ Answer: H 4 Fields: Ahead: Overview of Antihistamines Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 1
Taxonomy: Analysis
10. Under what two circumstances may second-generation antihistamines cause drowsiness?
✎ Answer: If used concurrently with medications that cause CNS depression or with alcohol Fields: Ahead:
1.2 Second-Generation Antihistamines Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 1 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch02-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. Which of the following statements pertains to antimicrobial therapy?
a. Lower dosage levels of antimicrobial therapy can help prevent allergic responses.
✓ b. A differential diagnosis should indicate whether an infection is self-limiting.
c. Self-limiting infections often require antimicrobial therapy.
d. In cases of sepsis, laboratory specimens are not required.
2. The desired response to antimicrobial therapy within the first 24 to 48 hours includes:
a. increased thirst.
b. increased sputum production.
✓ c. white blood cell count begins to normalize.
d. spike in temperature.
3. Albendazole is the treatment of choice for infection with which parasite?
a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Enterobius vermicularis
✓ d. Ascaris lumbricoides
4. Choose the correct statement describing antibacterial drugs.
, a. Antibiotics are developed to have similar required exposure times across drug classes.
✓ b. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are the agents of choice for most staphylococcal disease.
c. Narrow therapeutic agents have a higher safety tolerance for large fluctuations of drug in the blood.
d. Therapeutic levels of antibacterial agents are established during tissue culture studies.
5. Most systemic fungal infections are acquired via:
a. oral–fecal transmission.
✓ b. inhalation.
c. direct contact.
d. nosocomial transmission.
6. Why is combination therapy needed in the treatment of mycobacterial infections?
a. Because mycobacteria grow slowly
✓ b. Because mycobacteria exhibit a high rate of intrinsic resistance mutations
c. Because mycobacterial infections usually occur concomitantly with other bacterial infections
d. Because mycobacterial drugs are particularly prone to poor absorption
7. Which of the following protozoal diseases is associated with as many as 500 million new
infections and 2 million deaths annually worldwide?
a. Trichomoniasis
✓ b. Malaria
c. Giradiasis
d. Toxoplasmosis
8. Describe the two currently available modes of action of antihelmintic drugs.
✎ Answer: Locally within the gut lumen to cause expulsion of worms from the GI tract and systemically
against helminths residing outside the GI tract Fields: Ahead: 2.1 Anthelmintics Complexity: Difficult
Subject: Chapter 2 Taxonomy: Analysis
9. Explain why it is important for antiviral compounds to be able to discriminate between host
and viral functions with a high degree of specificity.
✎ Answer: To avoid attacking host cells, since viruses replicate intracellularly and often use host cell
enzymes, macromolecules, and organelles to make their own particles Fields: Ahead: 2.5 Antivirals
Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 2 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch03-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of targeted cancer therapies?
a. They target broader ranges of tumor markers.
✓ b. Side effects are more severe.
c. They are more prone to drug–drug interactions.
d. There are fewer applicable diseases for these drugs.
2. Folate antimetabolites are eliminated primarily through the:
, a. liver.
✓ b. kidneys.
c. skin.
d. colon.
3. What activity of carmustine and lomustine make them unique among alkylating agents?
✓ a. They are able to cross the blood■brain barrier.
b. They have a low side-effect profile.
c. They are nonteratogenic.
d. They are cell-cycle specific.
4. Leukemic cells lack the enzyme necessary to produce which amino acid that healthy cells
are capable of producing?
✓ a. Asparagine
b. Arginine
c. Aspartate
d. Alanine
5. Which antineoplastic effect do monoclonal antibodies achieve by binding to human
vascular growth factor receptors?
a. They promote extravasation of new blood vessels.
b. They induce apoptosis.
✓ c. They inhibit metastatic disease progression.
d. They cause cross-linking between DNA strands.
6. Second-generation tyrosine kinase inhibitors are commonly associated with which
complication?
a. Secondary resistance
✓ b. Skin toxicity
c. Negative influences on bone integrity
d. Anorexia
7. In addition to their antineoplastic effects, topoisomerase inhibitors can also function as
_______________ agents.
a. antifungal
b. antiparasitic
✓ c. antibacterial
d. antiprotozoal
8. Describe the basic mechanisms of action of the antitumor antibiotics bleomycin,
dactinomycin, and mitomycin.
✎ Answer: Bleomycin, dactinomycin, and mitomycin cause breaks in single- and double-strand DNA,
intercalate between DNA, and cause cross-linking of DNA. Fields: Ahead: 3.1 Antibiotics Complexity:
Difficult Subject: Chapter 3 Taxonomy: Analysis
9. Describe the mechanism of action of aromatase inhibitors.
, ✎ Answer: They block conversion of androgens into estrogens. Fields: Ahead: 3.6 Hormone/Hormone
Modifiers Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 3 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch04-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. Autonomic drugs are often used in topical form for what purpose?
a. To treat respiratory conditions
b. To control blood pressure
✓ c. To shrink mucous membranes
d. To treat congestive heart failure
2. Autonomic drugs have little effect when administered:
✓ a. orally.
b. intramuscularly.
c. intravenously.
d. by inhalation.
3. Which of the following statements accurately describes an activity or function of
acetylcholine?
a. Its action is highly specific.
b. It causes blood vessels to constrict.
✓ c. It is the primary neurotransmitter within the peripheral nervous system.
d. It stimulates adrenergic receptors.
4. How many muscarinic receptors have been identified?
a. 2
✓ b. 5
c. 9
d. 11
5. Which of the following is a potential adverse side effect of autonomic-anticholinergic
agents?
✓ a. Increased symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy
b. Reduced GI motility
c. Bradycardia
d. Photosensitivity
6. Which of the following statements accurately describes centrally acting skeletal muscle
relaxants?
a. They act both centrally and peripherally.
b. They heighten pain perception.
✓ c. Most evidence does not support their effectiveness.
d. They paradoxically increase muscle tone in some patients.
,7. Which of the following drugs is FDA-approved for Alzheimer's disease?
a. Bethanechol
✓ b. Donepezil
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Aclidinium
8. Describe the potential gastrointestinal side effects and contraindications of cholinergic
agents.
✎ Answer: Cholinergic agents can cause increased gastrointestinal secretions, including stomach acid.
Caution is advised when considering the use of these agents in patients with peptic ulcer disease. Fields:
Ahead: 4.1 Autonomic-Parasympathomimetic (Cholinergic) Agents Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 4
Taxonomy: Analysis
9. Describe the mechanism of action of sympathomimetic amines.
✎ Answer: Sympathomimetic amines function as adrenergic receptor agonists. They cause
sympathomimetic-stimulant-like effects that promote the release of norepinephrine, block its transport or
reuptake, inhibit its metabolism, or “imitate” its actions. Fields: Ahead: 4.3 Autonomic-Sympathomimetic
Adrenergic Agents Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 4 Taxonomy: Analysis
10. Explain why autonomic-sympathetic agents are contraindicated in patients with coronary
insufficiency or history of myocardial infarction.
✎ Answer: Autonomic-sympatholytic agents have stimulating effects on the heart, increasing myocardial
oxygen demand. Fields: Ahead: 4.4 Autonomic-Sympatholytic (Adrenergic Blocking) Agents Complexity:
Difficult Subject: Chapter 4 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch05-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. In the sequential thrombin amplification process, activated thrombin induces production of:
a. prothrombin.
b. antithrombin.
✓ c. fibrin.
d. plasmin.
2. Which step in the clotting cascade allows prothrombin to be converted to thrombin?
a. Activation of factor IX to factor X
✓ b. Activation of factor X to factor Xa
c. Activation of factor XI to factor XIa
d. Activation of factor XII to factor XIIa
3. The anticoagulant drug that acts as a vitamin K antagonist is:
a. heparin.
✓ b. coumadin.
c. dabigatran.
d. apixaban.
,4. Which mechanism of platelet inhibition is exhibited by aspirin?
✓ a. Cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibition
b. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) antagonism
c. Phosphodiesterase inhibition
d. Glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa inhibition
5. Which of the following is an important factor to consider with regard to the intravenous and
subcutaneous dosing methods used for hematopoietic agents?
a. Underlying disease state
b. Laboratory values
c. Timing of chemotherapy
✓ d. Diluent requirements
6. What do hemorrheologic agents do?
a. Separate blood fractions
✓ b. Decrease viscosity of blood
c. Increase capillary permeability
d. Increase blood oxygenation
7. Which of the following statements about iron therapy is accurate?
a. Anemia should be reassessed after 9 months of iron replacement therapy.
b. Therapy should be administered 4 hours before or 2 hours after antacid.
c. Ferrous fumarate contains 20% elemental iron.
✓ d. Anaphylactic-type hypersensitivity reactions have occurred from parenteral replacement.
8. Provide one example of a condition that would require therapy with
erythropoietin-stimulating agents, and explain why this therapy would be indicated for that
condition.
✎ Answer: Chronic renal insufficiency or anemia resulting from chronic disease would require
erythropoietin-stimulating agents because these conditions are associated with deficiencies in red blood
cell production. Fields: Ahead: 5.1 Antianemia Agents Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 5 Taxonomy:
Analysis
9. Describe the protocol for dextran administration.
✎ Answer: Initiate therapy with smaller bolus volumes ranging from 500 to 1000 mL Dextran 40. Evaluate
patient's volume status with regard to blood pressure, heart rate, renal function, urine output, and other
relevant markers before graduating to additional bolus doses. Fields: Ahead: 5.4 Hemorrheologic Agents
Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 5 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch06-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. The best way to increase HDL levels is through:
a. statin therapy.
b. niacin supplementation.
, ✓ c. exercise.
d. fibric acid derivatives.
2. Choose the correct statement regarding heart failure.
a. Less complicated symptoms occur in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) than in heart
failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)
✓ b. Evidence-based treatments are available to decrease morbidity and mortality for patients with HFrEF
but not for patients with HfpEF.
c. Hydralazines should be avoided for African Americans.
d. Loop diuretics reduce morbidity but not mortality for patients with HFrEF.
3. Which of the following statements accurately describes digoxin?
a. It is widely used to augment cardiac output.
b. It is broken down by the liver.
c. It increases ventricular contraction by activating the AV node.
✓ d. It blocks the Na-K ATPase pump.
4. Which of the following statements describes clonidine?
a. Side effects, such as dry mouth and sedation, are due to its central nervous system effects.
✓ b. Side effects can be reduced by using transdermal administration.
c. It should be tapered over 2 to 4 weeks to avoid rebound hypertension.
d. It inhibits parasympathetic outflow peripherally.
5. Nitrates promote release of nitric oxide from:
a. platelets.
b. basophils
✓ c. endothelium.
d. smooth muscle.
6. Beta 2 receptors are found in:
a. the heart.
b. blood vessels.
c. the brain.
✓ d. smooth muscle.
7. Which of the following is a side effect or precaution associated with ACE inhibitors?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Productive cough
✓ c. Angioedema
d. Contraindicated in diabetes patients
8. Describe the mechanisms of action of Class IA antiarrhythmics and their resulting effects.
✎ Answer: Class IA agents work by blocking both sodium and potassium. The results are an increased
action potential duration and an increase in the effective refractory period. Fields: Ahead: 6.1 Cardiac
Drugs Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 6 Taxonomy: Analysis
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
Quizzes, Midterm and final exams are included (if available in the original resources).
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
⚠️Note on Answer Keys: If the answer key is not included within the chapter
questions, you will find the complete answers and solutions at the end of each
chapter.
✅ Why Buy From Us?
📚 Complete & organized chapter-by-chapter – no missing content, no guessing.
⚡ Instant digital delivery – get your file the moment you pay, no waiting.
📅 Always up to date – we track new editions so you always get the latest version.
💬 Friendly support – real humans ready to help, anytime you need us.
🔒 Safe & secure – thousands of satisfied students trust us every semester.
🛡️Our Guarantees
💰 Money-Back Guarantee: Not satisfied? We offer a full refund – no questions asked.
🔄 Wrong File? No Problem: Contact us and we will replace it immediately with the
correct version, free of charge.
⏰ 24/7 Support: We are always here – reach out anytime and expect a fast response.
, Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice –
Test Bank
Demler_Ch01-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. In the stomach, histamine is released by:
a. parietal cells.
✓ b. enterochromaffin-like cells.
c. chief cells.
d. mucoid cells.
2. The first drugs typically used to treat the symptoms of an allergic reaction or allergic
rhinitis are:
a. oral H 1 antihistamines.
b. intranasal H 1 antihistamines.
✓ c. H 2 antihistamines.
d. H 3 antihistamines.
3. Some first-generation antihistamines are used:
a. as stimulants.
✓ b. to prevent motion sickness.
c. as anticonvulsants.
d. as laxatives.
4. Which of the following is a side effect of first-generation antihistamines related to their
anticholinergic activity?
a. Blurry vision
b. Diarrhea
✓ c. Cognitive disturbances
d. Nausea
5. Compared to first-generation antihistamines, second-generation antihistamines:
✓ a. are less able to penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
b. have fewer muscarinic effects.
c. have greater anticholinergic effects.
d. are more likely to cause drowsiness.
6. Second-generation antihistamines are preferred for treating which patient category?
✓ a. Children
b. Women
c. Patients with hypertension
d. Patients with insomnia
,7. Which type of antihistamines are used to inhibit the secretion of gastric acid in patients
with gastrointestinal disorders?
a. H 1
✓ b. H 2
c. H 3
d. H 4
8. Toxicity of antihistamines has been reported in incidents of interactions with:
a. kidney function.
b. neurotransmitter activity.
✓ c. liver enzymes.
d. diabetes medications.
9. Eosinophils, neutrophils, and T cells contain the type of histamine receptors referred to as
____.
✎ Answer: H 4 Fields: Ahead: Overview of Antihistamines Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 1
Taxonomy: Analysis
10. Under what two circumstances may second-generation antihistamines cause drowsiness?
✎ Answer: If used concurrently with medications that cause CNS depression or with alcohol Fields: Ahead:
1.2 Second-Generation Antihistamines Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 1 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch02-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. Which of the following statements pertains to antimicrobial therapy?
a. Lower dosage levels of antimicrobial therapy can help prevent allergic responses.
✓ b. A differential diagnosis should indicate whether an infection is self-limiting.
c. Self-limiting infections often require antimicrobial therapy.
d. In cases of sepsis, laboratory specimens are not required.
2. The desired response to antimicrobial therapy within the first 24 to 48 hours includes:
a. increased thirst.
b. increased sputum production.
✓ c. white blood cell count begins to normalize.
d. spike in temperature.
3. Albendazole is the treatment of choice for infection with which parasite?
a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Enterobius vermicularis
✓ d. Ascaris lumbricoides
4. Choose the correct statement describing antibacterial drugs.
, a. Antibiotics are developed to have similar required exposure times across drug classes.
✓ b. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are the agents of choice for most staphylococcal disease.
c. Narrow therapeutic agents have a higher safety tolerance for large fluctuations of drug in the blood.
d. Therapeutic levels of antibacterial agents are established during tissue culture studies.
5. Most systemic fungal infections are acquired via:
a. oral–fecal transmission.
✓ b. inhalation.
c. direct contact.
d. nosocomial transmission.
6. Why is combination therapy needed in the treatment of mycobacterial infections?
a. Because mycobacteria grow slowly
✓ b. Because mycobacteria exhibit a high rate of intrinsic resistance mutations
c. Because mycobacterial infections usually occur concomitantly with other bacterial infections
d. Because mycobacterial drugs are particularly prone to poor absorption
7. Which of the following protozoal diseases is associated with as many as 500 million new
infections and 2 million deaths annually worldwide?
a. Trichomoniasis
✓ b. Malaria
c. Giradiasis
d. Toxoplasmosis
8. Describe the two currently available modes of action of antihelmintic drugs.
✎ Answer: Locally within the gut lumen to cause expulsion of worms from the GI tract and systemically
against helminths residing outside the GI tract Fields: Ahead: 2.1 Anthelmintics Complexity: Difficult
Subject: Chapter 2 Taxonomy: Analysis
9. Explain why it is important for antiviral compounds to be able to discriminate between host
and viral functions with a high degree of specificity.
✎ Answer: To avoid attacking host cells, since viruses replicate intracellularly and often use host cell
enzymes, macromolecules, and organelles to make their own particles Fields: Ahead: 2.5 Antivirals
Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 2 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch03-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of targeted cancer therapies?
a. They target broader ranges of tumor markers.
✓ b. Side effects are more severe.
c. They are more prone to drug–drug interactions.
d. There are fewer applicable diseases for these drugs.
2. Folate antimetabolites are eliminated primarily through the:
, a. liver.
✓ b. kidneys.
c. skin.
d. colon.
3. What activity of carmustine and lomustine make them unique among alkylating agents?
✓ a. They are able to cross the blood■brain barrier.
b. They have a low side-effect profile.
c. They are nonteratogenic.
d. They are cell-cycle specific.
4. Leukemic cells lack the enzyme necessary to produce which amino acid that healthy cells
are capable of producing?
✓ a. Asparagine
b. Arginine
c. Aspartate
d. Alanine
5. Which antineoplastic effect do monoclonal antibodies achieve by binding to human
vascular growth factor receptors?
a. They promote extravasation of new blood vessels.
b. They induce apoptosis.
✓ c. They inhibit metastatic disease progression.
d. They cause cross-linking between DNA strands.
6. Second-generation tyrosine kinase inhibitors are commonly associated with which
complication?
a. Secondary resistance
✓ b. Skin toxicity
c. Negative influences on bone integrity
d. Anorexia
7. In addition to their antineoplastic effects, topoisomerase inhibitors can also function as
_______________ agents.
a. antifungal
b. antiparasitic
✓ c. antibacterial
d. antiprotozoal
8. Describe the basic mechanisms of action of the antitumor antibiotics bleomycin,
dactinomycin, and mitomycin.
✎ Answer: Bleomycin, dactinomycin, and mitomycin cause breaks in single- and double-strand DNA,
intercalate between DNA, and cause cross-linking of DNA. Fields: Ahead: 3.1 Antibiotics Complexity:
Difficult Subject: Chapter 3 Taxonomy: Analysis
9. Describe the mechanism of action of aromatase inhibitors.
, ✎ Answer: They block conversion of androgens into estrogens. Fields: Ahead: 3.6 Hormone/Hormone
Modifiers Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 3 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch04-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. Autonomic drugs are often used in topical form for what purpose?
a. To treat respiratory conditions
b. To control blood pressure
✓ c. To shrink mucous membranes
d. To treat congestive heart failure
2. Autonomic drugs have little effect when administered:
✓ a. orally.
b. intramuscularly.
c. intravenously.
d. by inhalation.
3. Which of the following statements accurately describes an activity or function of
acetylcholine?
a. Its action is highly specific.
b. It causes blood vessels to constrict.
✓ c. It is the primary neurotransmitter within the peripheral nervous system.
d. It stimulates adrenergic receptors.
4. How many muscarinic receptors have been identified?
a. 2
✓ b. 5
c. 9
d. 11
5. Which of the following is a potential adverse side effect of autonomic-anticholinergic
agents?
✓ a. Increased symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy
b. Reduced GI motility
c. Bradycardia
d. Photosensitivity
6. Which of the following statements accurately describes centrally acting skeletal muscle
relaxants?
a. They act both centrally and peripherally.
b. They heighten pain perception.
✓ c. Most evidence does not support their effectiveness.
d. They paradoxically increase muscle tone in some patients.
,7. Which of the following drugs is FDA-approved for Alzheimer's disease?
a. Bethanechol
✓ b. Donepezil
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Aclidinium
8. Describe the potential gastrointestinal side effects and contraindications of cholinergic
agents.
✎ Answer: Cholinergic agents can cause increased gastrointestinal secretions, including stomach acid.
Caution is advised when considering the use of these agents in patients with peptic ulcer disease. Fields:
Ahead: 4.1 Autonomic-Parasympathomimetic (Cholinergic) Agents Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 4
Taxonomy: Analysis
9. Describe the mechanism of action of sympathomimetic amines.
✎ Answer: Sympathomimetic amines function as adrenergic receptor agonists. They cause
sympathomimetic-stimulant-like effects that promote the release of norepinephrine, block its transport or
reuptake, inhibit its metabolism, or “imitate” its actions. Fields: Ahead: 4.3 Autonomic-Sympathomimetic
Adrenergic Agents Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 4 Taxonomy: Analysis
10. Explain why autonomic-sympathetic agents are contraindicated in patients with coronary
insufficiency or history of myocardial infarction.
✎ Answer: Autonomic-sympatholytic agents have stimulating effects on the heart, increasing myocardial
oxygen demand. Fields: Ahead: 4.4 Autonomic-Sympatholytic (Adrenergic Blocking) Agents Complexity:
Difficult Subject: Chapter 4 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch05-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. In the sequential thrombin amplification process, activated thrombin induces production of:
a. prothrombin.
b. antithrombin.
✓ c. fibrin.
d. plasmin.
2. Which step in the clotting cascade allows prothrombin to be converted to thrombin?
a. Activation of factor IX to factor X
✓ b. Activation of factor X to factor Xa
c. Activation of factor XI to factor XIa
d. Activation of factor XII to factor XIIa
3. The anticoagulant drug that acts as a vitamin K antagonist is:
a. heparin.
✓ b. coumadin.
c. dabigatran.
d. apixaban.
,4. Which mechanism of platelet inhibition is exhibited by aspirin?
✓ a. Cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibition
b. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) antagonism
c. Phosphodiesterase inhibition
d. Glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa inhibition
5. Which of the following is an important factor to consider with regard to the intravenous and
subcutaneous dosing methods used for hematopoietic agents?
a. Underlying disease state
b. Laboratory values
c. Timing of chemotherapy
✓ d. Diluent requirements
6. What do hemorrheologic agents do?
a. Separate blood fractions
✓ b. Decrease viscosity of blood
c. Increase capillary permeability
d. Increase blood oxygenation
7. Which of the following statements about iron therapy is accurate?
a. Anemia should be reassessed after 9 months of iron replacement therapy.
b. Therapy should be administered 4 hours before or 2 hours after antacid.
c. Ferrous fumarate contains 20% elemental iron.
✓ d. Anaphylactic-type hypersensitivity reactions have occurred from parenteral replacement.
8. Provide one example of a condition that would require therapy with
erythropoietin-stimulating agents, and explain why this therapy would be indicated for that
condition.
✎ Answer: Chronic renal insufficiency or anemia resulting from chronic disease would require
erythropoietin-stimulating agents because these conditions are associated with deficiencies in red blood
cell production. Fields: Ahead: 5.1 Antianemia Agents Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 5 Taxonomy:
Analysis
9. Describe the protocol for dextran administration.
✎ Answer: Initiate therapy with smaller bolus volumes ranging from 500 to 1000 mL Dextran 40. Evaluate
patient's volume status with regard to blood pressure, heart rate, renal function, urine output, and other
relevant markers before graduating to additional bolus doses. Fields: Ahead: 5.4 Hemorrheologic Agents
Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 5 Taxonomy: Analysis
Demler_Ch06-Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
1. The best way to increase HDL levels is through:
a. statin therapy.
b. niacin supplementation.
, ✓ c. exercise.
d. fibric acid derivatives.
2. Choose the correct statement regarding heart failure.
a. Less complicated symptoms occur in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) than in heart
failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)
✓ b. Evidence-based treatments are available to decrease morbidity and mortality for patients with HFrEF
but not for patients with HfpEF.
c. Hydralazines should be avoided for African Americans.
d. Loop diuretics reduce morbidity but not mortality for patients with HFrEF.
3. Which of the following statements accurately describes digoxin?
a. It is widely used to augment cardiac output.
b. It is broken down by the liver.
c. It increases ventricular contraction by activating the AV node.
✓ d. It blocks the Na-K ATPase pump.
4. Which of the following statements describes clonidine?
a. Side effects, such as dry mouth and sedation, are due to its central nervous system effects.
✓ b. Side effects can be reduced by using transdermal administration.
c. It should be tapered over 2 to 4 weeks to avoid rebound hypertension.
d. It inhibits parasympathetic outflow peripherally.
5. Nitrates promote release of nitric oxide from:
a. platelets.
b. basophils
✓ c. endothelium.
d. smooth muscle.
6. Beta 2 receptors are found in:
a. the heart.
b. blood vessels.
c. the brain.
✓ d. smooth muscle.
7. Which of the following is a side effect or precaution associated with ACE inhibitors?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Productive cough
✓ c. Angioedema
d. Contraindicated in diabetes patients
8. Describe the mechanisms of action of Class IA antiarrhythmics and their resulting effects.
✎ Answer: Class IA agents work by blocking both sodium and potassium. The results are an increased
action potential duration and an increase in the effective refractory period. Fields: Ahead: 6.1 Cardiac
Drugs Complexity: Difficult Subject: Chapter 6 Taxonomy: Analysis
