NEVADA MPJE
PRACTICE EXAM 2026–2027
(120 Original Practice Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales)
Federal Pharmacy Law + Nevada-Specific Themes
Pharmacy Jurisprudence | NABP MPJE-Style Practice
Key Domains: Nevada Pharmacy Practice Act (NRS/NAC 639) • Federal FDCA/CSA • Controlled Substances • Prescription
Processing • Distribution & Records • Counseling • Pharmacy Operations
IMPORTANT DISCLAIMER: This is an ORIGINAL educational practice resource for study purposes only. It is NOT an official NABP MPJE,
NOT an official Nevada State Board of Pharmacy examination, and does NOT contain proprietary NABP exam items. It is not affiliated with,
endorsed by, or produced by NABP or the Nevada State Board of Pharmacy. Content blends commonly tested federal pharmacy law with
Nevada themes drawn from publicly available NRS/NAC concepts (Ch. 639 pharmacy; Ch. 453 controlled substances) and standard MPJE study
domains. Pharmacy laws and Board regulations change frequently—always verify every rule against the current Nevada Revised Statutes,
Nevada Administrative Code, DEA/FDA requirements, and official Board guidance before relying on any statement. Passing the official MPJE
and meeting all Board requirements is required for licensure.
Introduction
The MPJE is a 120-question exam (100 scored + 20 pretest). This practice set provides 120 original items spanning
federal and Nevada jurisprudence. Correct answers appear in bold cyan with rationales. Official scoring uses scaled
scores (commonly cited passing score 75)—confirm current NABP rules. Use this as a drill tool after studying primary
law sources.
Suggested Study Use
• Time yourself (about 2.5 hours) for all 120 questions before checking answers.
• Build a “stricter law wins” checklist for federal vs Nevada differences.
• Memorize DEA forms (222, 106, 41), schedules, refill rules, and inventory rules cold.
• Read current NAC 639 (pharmacy) and NAC 453 (CS) sections on Rx content, tech ratios, counseling, and PMP.
• Complete official Nevada law CE materials from the Board as part of real practice readiness.
EXAM QUESTIONS (1–120)
PART A — Federal Controlled Substances Act (Q1–20)
1. Under the federal Controlled Substances Act, which schedule has the highest abuse potential and no
currently accepted medical use in the U.S.?
A. Schedule III
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule I
D. Schedule V
Correct Answer: C. Schedule I
Rationale: C-I: high abuse potential, no accepted medical use (e.g., heroin, LSD, marijuana federally). C-II-V have accepted
medical uses with decreasing controls.
2. Which statement about Schedule II controlled substances is correct?
A. They have accepted medical use but high potential for abuse and severe dependence liability
B. They may be refilled five times in 6 months like C-III/IV under federal law
C. They have lower abuse potential than Schedule V
D. They never require a prescription
Correct Answer: A. They have accepted medical use but high potential for abuse and severe dependence
liability
Rationale: C-II: high abuse/dependence risk with medical use (e.g., oxycodone, morphine, methylphenidate, fentanyl). Federal
law: no refills on C-II.
,3. Under federal law, Schedule III and IV prescriptions may generally be refilled:
A. Up to 5 times within 6 months after the date of issue (if authorized)
B. Only once within 30 days
C. Never
D. Unlimited times for 1 year
Correct Answer: A. Up to 5 times within 6 months after the date of issue (if authorized)
Rationale: C-III/IV: max 5 refills / 6 months from issue date. C-V federal refill rules are less restrictive but state law may be
stricter.
4. A federal emergency oral Schedule II prescription generally requires the prescriber to deliver a
written/electronic cover prescription within:
A. 30 days
B. 7 days
C. 6 months
D. 24 hours only always
Correct Answer: B. 7 days
Rationale: DEA emergency C-II oral Rx: limited quantity for emergency period; pharmacist immediately reduces to writing;
prescriber must provide signed Rx within 7 days (follow current DEA rules).
5. Multiple Schedule II prescriptions for the same drug issued on the same day may provide up to a total of
how many days' supply under federal rules (if each has earliest fill date and legitimate medical purpose)?
A. 180 days
B. 90 days
C. 365 days
D. 30 days only
Correct Answer: B. 90 days
Rationale: Federal rule allows multiple C-II Rxs totaling up to 90-day supply with do-not-fill-until dates, when lawful and for
legitimate medical purpose.
6. DEA Form 222 is used to:
A. Document destruction of all noncontrolled drugs
B. Report theft only
C. Order Schedule I and II controlled substances
D. Register a pharmacy for the first time only
Correct Answer: C. Order Schedule I and II controlled substances
Rationale: Official order forms (or CSOS electronic) for C-I/II procurement. Keep executed forms as required.
7. DEA Form 106 is used to report:
A. Transfer of business ownership only
B. Biennial inventory only
C. Theft or significant loss of controlled substances
D. New pharmacy registration
Correct Answer: C. Theft or significant loss of controlled substances
Rationale: Report theft/significant loss to DEA (and often local law enforcement/board per requirements). Document
circumstances.
8. DEA Form 41 is associated with:
A. Reporting employee screening only
B. Destruction/disposal of controlled substances (as applicable under current procedures)
C. PSE logbook submission
D. Ordering C-II drugs
Correct Answer: B. Destruction/disposal of controlled substances (as applicable under current procedures)
Rationale: Destruction documentation processes use Form 41 or reverse distributor pathways—follow current DEA guidance.
9. Federal controlled substance inventory must be taken at least:
, A. Weekly
B. Biennially (every 2 years)
C. Only once ever when the pharmacy opens
D. Every 10 years
Correct Answer: B. Biennially (every 2 years)
Rationale: Initial inventory on first engaging in CS activity, then at least every 2 years. State may be stricter.
10. For Schedule II inventory counts, federal rules require:
A. An exact count (not estimate)
B. Counting only by technicians without pharmacist oversight always
C. No count if bottles are sealed
D. An estimate always allowed for C-II
Correct Answer: A. An exact count (not estimate)
Rationale: C-II: exact count. C-III-V: estimate permitted if container is 1,000 or fewer units; exact if more than 1,000.
11. The corresponding responsibility doctrine means:
A. Both the prescriber and the pharmacist share responsibility for ensuring a controlled substance
prescription is issued for a legitimate medical purpose in the usual course of practice
B. Only the DEA agent fills prescriptions
C. Pharmacists may ignore red flags if the Rx looks signed
D. Only the patient is responsible for opioid safety
Correct Answer: A. Both the prescriber and the pharmacist share responsibility for ensuring a controlled
substance prescription is issued for a legitimate medical purpose in the usual course of practice
Rationale: Pharmacists must exercise professional judgment, resolve red flags, and refuse to fill invalid/fraudulent CS Rxs.
12. Under federal law, a prescription for a controlled substance must be issued for:
A. A legitimate medical purpose by a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice
B. Office use stock bottles labeled as patient-specific without a patient
C. Internet schemes without evaluation when prohibited
D. Any reason if the patient pays cash
Correct Answer: A. A legitimate medical purpose by a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional
practice
Rationale: Invalid CS prescriptions are not legal. Know Ryan Haight Act themes for online prescribing of CS.
13. Methadone may be dispensed by a community pharmacy for:
A. Unrestricted take-home detox for any patient without OTP involvement
B. C-I research without registration
C. Analgesia when lawfully prescribed for pain—but not for detox/maintenance treatment of opioid
addiction except as otherwise authorized
D. Any addiction treatment without OTP rules
Correct Answer: C. Analgesia when lawfully prescribed for pain—but not for detox/maintenance treatment
of opioid addiction except as otherwise authorized
Rationale: Addiction detox/maintenance generally via OTPs; community pharmacies dispense methadone for pain.
Buprenorphine for OUD has separate federal frameworks.
14. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act regulates retail sales of:
A. All Schedule II opioids
B. Insulin only
C. Antibiotics only
D. Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine products
Correct Answer: D. Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine products
Rationale: Daily/monthly quantity limits, logbook or electronic tracking, photo ID, employee training.
15. Federal PSE retail purchase limits (classic CMEA teaching) include a daily limit of:
A. 30 grams per day
PRACTICE EXAM 2026–2027
(120 Original Practice Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales)
Federal Pharmacy Law + Nevada-Specific Themes
Pharmacy Jurisprudence | NABP MPJE-Style Practice
Key Domains: Nevada Pharmacy Practice Act (NRS/NAC 639) • Federal FDCA/CSA • Controlled Substances • Prescription
Processing • Distribution & Records • Counseling • Pharmacy Operations
IMPORTANT DISCLAIMER: This is an ORIGINAL educational practice resource for study purposes only. It is NOT an official NABP MPJE,
NOT an official Nevada State Board of Pharmacy examination, and does NOT contain proprietary NABP exam items. It is not affiliated with,
endorsed by, or produced by NABP or the Nevada State Board of Pharmacy. Content blends commonly tested federal pharmacy law with
Nevada themes drawn from publicly available NRS/NAC concepts (Ch. 639 pharmacy; Ch. 453 controlled substances) and standard MPJE study
domains. Pharmacy laws and Board regulations change frequently—always verify every rule against the current Nevada Revised Statutes,
Nevada Administrative Code, DEA/FDA requirements, and official Board guidance before relying on any statement. Passing the official MPJE
and meeting all Board requirements is required for licensure.
Introduction
The MPJE is a 120-question exam (100 scored + 20 pretest). This practice set provides 120 original items spanning
federal and Nevada jurisprudence. Correct answers appear in bold cyan with rationales. Official scoring uses scaled
scores (commonly cited passing score 75)—confirm current NABP rules. Use this as a drill tool after studying primary
law sources.
Suggested Study Use
• Time yourself (about 2.5 hours) for all 120 questions before checking answers.
• Build a “stricter law wins” checklist for federal vs Nevada differences.
• Memorize DEA forms (222, 106, 41), schedules, refill rules, and inventory rules cold.
• Read current NAC 639 (pharmacy) and NAC 453 (CS) sections on Rx content, tech ratios, counseling, and PMP.
• Complete official Nevada law CE materials from the Board as part of real practice readiness.
EXAM QUESTIONS (1–120)
PART A — Federal Controlled Substances Act (Q1–20)
1. Under the federal Controlled Substances Act, which schedule has the highest abuse potential and no
currently accepted medical use in the U.S.?
A. Schedule III
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule I
D. Schedule V
Correct Answer: C. Schedule I
Rationale: C-I: high abuse potential, no accepted medical use (e.g., heroin, LSD, marijuana federally). C-II-V have accepted
medical uses with decreasing controls.
2. Which statement about Schedule II controlled substances is correct?
A. They have accepted medical use but high potential for abuse and severe dependence liability
B. They may be refilled five times in 6 months like C-III/IV under federal law
C. They have lower abuse potential than Schedule V
D. They never require a prescription
Correct Answer: A. They have accepted medical use but high potential for abuse and severe dependence
liability
Rationale: C-II: high abuse/dependence risk with medical use (e.g., oxycodone, morphine, methylphenidate, fentanyl). Federal
law: no refills on C-II.
,3. Under federal law, Schedule III and IV prescriptions may generally be refilled:
A. Up to 5 times within 6 months after the date of issue (if authorized)
B. Only once within 30 days
C. Never
D. Unlimited times for 1 year
Correct Answer: A. Up to 5 times within 6 months after the date of issue (if authorized)
Rationale: C-III/IV: max 5 refills / 6 months from issue date. C-V federal refill rules are less restrictive but state law may be
stricter.
4. A federal emergency oral Schedule II prescription generally requires the prescriber to deliver a
written/electronic cover prescription within:
A. 30 days
B. 7 days
C. 6 months
D. 24 hours only always
Correct Answer: B. 7 days
Rationale: DEA emergency C-II oral Rx: limited quantity for emergency period; pharmacist immediately reduces to writing;
prescriber must provide signed Rx within 7 days (follow current DEA rules).
5. Multiple Schedule II prescriptions for the same drug issued on the same day may provide up to a total of
how many days' supply under federal rules (if each has earliest fill date and legitimate medical purpose)?
A. 180 days
B. 90 days
C. 365 days
D. 30 days only
Correct Answer: B. 90 days
Rationale: Federal rule allows multiple C-II Rxs totaling up to 90-day supply with do-not-fill-until dates, when lawful and for
legitimate medical purpose.
6. DEA Form 222 is used to:
A. Document destruction of all noncontrolled drugs
B. Report theft only
C. Order Schedule I and II controlled substances
D. Register a pharmacy for the first time only
Correct Answer: C. Order Schedule I and II controlled substances
Rationale: Official order forms (or CSOS electronic) for C-I/II procurement. Keep executed forms as required.
7. DEA Form 106 is used to report:
A. Transfer of business ownership only
B. Biennial inventory only
C. Theft or significant loss of controlled substances
D. New pharmacy registration
Correct Answer: C. Theft or significant loss of controlled substances
Rationale: Report theft/significant loss to DEA (and often local law enforcement/board per requirements). Document
circumstances.
8. DEA Form 41 is associated with:
A. Reporting employee screening only
B. Destruction/disposal of controlled substances (as applicable under current procedures)
C. PSE logbook submission
D. Ordering C-II drugs
Correct Answer: B. Destruction/disposal of controlled substances (as applicable under current procedures)
Rationale: Destruction documentation processes use Form 41 or reverse distributor pathways—follow current DEA guidance.
9. Federal controlled substance inventory must be taken at least:
, A. Weekly
B. Biennially (every 2 years)
C. Only once ever when the pharmacy opens
D. Every 10 years
Correct Answer: B. Biennially (every 2 years)
Rationale: Initial inventory on first engaging in CS activity, then at least every 2 years. State may be stricter.
10. For Schedule II inventory counts, federal rules require:
A. An exact count (not estimate)
B. Counting only by technicians without pharmacist oversight always
C. No count if bottles are sealed
D. An estimate always allowed for C-II
Correct Answer: A. An exact count (not estimate)
Rationale: C-II: exact count. C-III-V: estimate permitted if container is 1,000 or fewer units; exact if more than 1,000.
11. The corresponding responsibility doctrine means:
A. Both the prescriber and the pharmacist share responsibility for ensuring a controlled substance
prescription is issued for a legitimate medical purpose in the usual course of practice
B. Only the DEA agent fills prescriptions
C. Pharmacists may ignore red flags if the Rx looks signed
D. Only the patient is responsible for opioid safety
Correct Answer: A. Both the prescriber and the pharmacist share responsibility for ensuring a controlled
substance prescription is issued for a legitimate medical purpose in the usual course of practice
Rationale: Pharmacists must exercise professional judgment, resolve red flags, and refuse to fill invalid/fraudulent CS Rxs.
12. Under federal law, a prescription for a controlled substance must be issued for:
A. A legitimate medical purpose by a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice
B. Office use stock bottles labeled as patient-specific without a patient
C. Internet schemes without evaluation when prohibited
D. Any reason if the patient pays cash
Correct Answer: A. A legitimate medical purpose by a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional
practice
Rationale: Invalid CS prescriptions are not legal. Know Ryan Haight Act themes for online prescribing of CS.
13. Methadone may be dispensed by a community pharmacy for:
A. Unrestricted take-home detox for any patient without OTP involvement
B. C-I research without registration
C. Analgesia when lawfully prescribed for pain—but not for detox/maintenance treatment of opioid
addiction except as otherwise authorized
D. Any addiction treatment without OTP rules
Correct Answer: C. Analgesia when lawfully prescribed for pain—but not for detox/maintenance treatment
of opioid addiction except as otherwise authorized
Rationale: Addiction detox/maintenance generally via OTPs; community pharmacies dispense methadone for pain.
Buprenorphine for OUD has separate federal frameworks.
14. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act regulates retail sales of:
A. All Schedule II opioids
B. Insulin only
C. Antibiotics only
D. Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine products
Correct Answer: D. Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine products
Rationale: Daily/monthly quantity limits, logbook or electronic tracking, photo ID, employee training.
15. Federal PSE retail purchase limits (classic CMEA teaching) include a daily limit of:
A. 30 grams per day
