, TESTBANK FOR Network Security, Firewalls, and VPNs Fourth Edition
Kinsey
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
Quizzes, Midterm and final exams are included (if available in the original resources).
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
⚠️Note on Answer Keys: If the answer key is not included within the chapter
questions, you will find the complete answers and solutions at the end of each
chapter.
✅ Why Buy From Us?
📚 Complete & organized chapter-by-chapter – no missing content, no guessing.
⚡ Instant digital delivery – get your file the moment you pay, no waiting.
📅 Always up to date – we track new editions so you always get the latest version.
💬 Friendly support – real humans ready to help, anytime you need us.
🔒 Safe & secure – thousands of satisfied students trust us every semester.
🛡️Our Guarantees
💰 Money-Back Guarantee: Not satisfied? We offer a full refund – no questions asked.
🔄 Wrong File? No Problem: Contact us and we will replace it immediately with the
correct version, free of charge.
⏰ 24/7 Support: We are always here – reach out anytime and expect a fast response.
,Network Security, Firewalls, and VPNs, 4th Edition TestBank
ANSWERS ARE BOLDED – CHANGE BEFORE USE!
Chapter 1
Multiple Choice
1. In network security, what is meant by permission?
a. The ability granted on a network
b. Authorization to access an asset
c. Initial, conditional trust
d. Confidentiality of data
2. Which of the following is not one of the three primary security objectives sought by
organizations?
a. Privacy
b. Nonrepudiation
c. Uptime
d. Duplication
3. What is the protection against downtime?
a. Authentication
b. Availability
c. Anonymity
d. Authorization
4. What is the security principle that prevents a user from denying they performed an
action?
a. Access control
b. Nonrepudiation
c. Privacy
d. Integrity
5. Which of the following is not an example of a network security violation?
a. Natural disaster
b. Hardware failure
c. Ignorance
d. Updates
6. What is the correct term for the action of addressing risk?
a. Countermeasure
b. Patching
c. Exploit
d. Accident
7. What is the purpose of an AUP?
a. Provide encryption for data on the network
b. Identify appropriate use of resources
c. Increase the number of addresses available
d. Determine an appropriate countermeasure
8. Which of the following is not a response mode?
a. Contain
b. Encrypt
, c. Repair
d. Respond
9. What is the process of purging a storage device to be discarded by filling its space with
zeros?
a. Degaussing
b. Editing
c. Emptying
d. Zeroization
10. What is any tool or technique that makes hacking your network less attractive than
hacking another network?
a. Deterrent
b. Script kiddie
c. Strong passwords
d. Version control
11. Which type of hacker does so for the money they can get in ransom or by selling
information?
a. Hacktivist
b. Professional
c. Script kiddie
d. Recreational
12. Which type of hacker does so to right some perceived wrong or for what they believe is
the greater good?
a. Hacktivist
b. Professional
c. Script kiddie
d. Recreational
13. Which type of hacker does so because they happened upon a vulnerable site or tried a
method of access, and it worked?
a. Hacktivist
b. Opportunistic
c. Script kiddie
d. Recreational
14. Which type of hacker is incapable of hacking on their own and relies on hacks written by
others?
a. Hacktivist
b. Professional
c. Script kiddie
d. Recreational
15. What is the term for gaining access to resources or systems which were not granted
intentionally by the company?
a. Defense in depth
b. Least privilege
c. Privilege escalation
d. Zeroization
16. What is the phase of hacking that incorporates footprinting?
a. Attacking
, b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
17. What hacking phase involves discovery and listing of potential attack targets?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
18. Which hacking phase is usually the briefest and could include adjustments to shell code?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
19. Which of the following is not a common post-attack activity?
a. Adding additional hacker tools
b. Creating a backdoor
c. Adding false data
d. Removing evidence of the hack
20. Which hacking phase commonly includes footprinting?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
21. Which hacking phase commonly includes reviewing an organization’s website?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
22. Which hacking phase commonly includes reviewing court cases?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
23. Which hacking phase commonly includes activities that are silent and unobtrusive?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
24. Which of the following is not a common activity in the scanning phase of a hack?
a. Eavesdropping
b. Ping sweeps
c. Port scanning
d. Wardriving
25. What is the proper term for using a sniffer to locate wireless networks?
a. Bannering
b. Execution
, c. Ping sweep
d. Wardriving
26. Which hacking phase includes learning sufficient details to know if a vulnerability exists
that they can attack?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
27. What benefit does a hacker get by probing open and closed ports of a target?
a. Acknowledgment
b. Data transfer
c. OS identification
d. Packet modification
28. What is meant by “banner grabbing” in hacking?
a. Altering the information hosted on a website to embarrass the organization
b. Copying a banner on a website to set up a rogue version of the site
c. Probing services on open ports to obtain information
d. Transposing the services to redirect traffic and confuse servers
29. If a hacker requests information concerning a service running on a system, which of the
following options describes what could occur next?
a. A response could be sent with the requested information
b. The request could be ignored, and nothing would be sent
c. Both A or B
d. Neither A nor B
30. What information could be learned from a service request if the server is insecure?
a. Birthdates
b. Host IDs
c. System name
d. User salary
True or False Questions
31. The attacking phase may include adjusting shell code (T/F). TRUE
32. Modern hacks are much faster and are usually achieved within an hour or less (T/F).
FALSE
33. An example of a fallback attack is social engineering (T/F). TRUE
34. Ascension is the attempt to gain higher levels of access from a target (T/F). FALSE
35. Zero-day attacks essentially have no defense (T/F). TRUE
36. Every malware incident is an advanced persistent threat (APT) (T/F). FALSE
37. A trap door is an electronic landmine (T/F). FALSE
38. Auditing all system accounts is the best defense against a hacker’s rogue account (T/F).
TRUE
39. RAID is the best defense against hardware failure (T/F). TRUE
40. A virus works without power (T/F). FALSE
,Chapter 2
Multiple Choice
1. A switch using the MAC address to differentiate traffic operates on what level?
a. Layer 1 (Physical)
b. Layer 2 (Data Link)
c. Layer 3 (Network)
d. Layer 4 (Transport)
2. Which of the following refers to the collection of MAC addresses in a switch?
a. Drop
b. Flood
c. Forward
d. Learn
3. Which of the following refers to the transmission of a frame to every port?
a. Flooding
b. Swarming
c. Swatting
d. Tumbling
4. What is another name for a protocol converter?
a. Bridge
b. Brouter
c. Router
d. Gateway
5. Which physical topology requires the use of a token?
a. Bus
b. Mesh
c. Ring
d. Star
6. Which type of physical ring topology offers redundancy?
a. Bidirectional
b. Clockwise
c. Counterclockwise
d. Unidirectional
7. Which topology is available in two forms: full and partial?
a. Bus
b. Mesh
c. Ring
d. Star
8. What is the concept that denies access to network resources to those persons and systems
without a legitimate need?
a. Deny list
b. Least privilege
c. Load balancing
d. Multifactor authentication
9. On what level do VLANs operate?
a. Layer 1 (Physical)
, b. Layer 2 (Data Link)
c. Layer 3 (Network)
d. Layer 4 (Transport)
10. Which of the following is the subnet mask used when a single host sends messages to
multiple network devices?
a. Experimental
b. Multicast
c. Private
d. Public
11. Which of the following migration strategies allows an IPv4 host to talk to an IPv6 host?
a. Dual-stack
b. Multi-mode
c. Translation
d. Tunneling
12. Which of the following is an example of an IPv6 address?
a. 2001:0f58::1986:2af
b. 2001:0f58:0000:0000:0000:1986:62af
c. 2001:0f58:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1986:62af
d. None of the above
13. Which of the following is not a benefit of IPv6 addressing?
a. Better QoS for all types of applications
b. Increased address space
c. Most efficient routing
d. Timeout for inquiries
14. Which of the following is true about IPv6 plug-and-play?
a. IPv6 does not support DHCP plug-and-play.
b. IPV6 supports plug-and-play with or without DHCP.
c. IPv6 only supports plug-and-play with NAT.
d. None of the above is true concerning IPv6 plug-and-play.
15. Which of the following transition mechanisms from IPv4 to IPv6 allows for both protocol
stacks to coexist in the same terminal or network equipment?
a. Dual-stack
b. Translation
c. Tunneling
d. None of the above
16. Which of the following transition mechanisms from IPv4 to IPv6 enables an IPv4 host to
talk to an IPv6 host?
a. Dual-stack
b. Translation
c. Tunneling
d. None of the above
17. Which of the following transition mechanisms from IPv4 to IPv6 exists but still requires
additional development, as it is not fully capable?
a. Dual-stack
b. Translation
c. Tunneling
, d. None of the above
18. Which of the following is true about IPSec?
a. Both IPv4 and IPv6 require the use of IPSec
b. IPv4 IPSec uses only an Authentication Header (AH)
c. IPv6 IPSec does not provide data origin authentication
d. IPSec is a mandatory component for IPv6
19. Which of the following is not a benefit of the IPv6 IPSec use of cryptography?
a. Confidentiality
b. Data origin authentication
c. Data integrity
d. Data verification
20. Which of the following is not a benefit of implementing a workgroup?
a. Centrally scheduled backups ensure data retention.
b. It is simple to manage for under 10 computers.
c. No central authority means each workgroup member controls their own system.
d. Workgroup members cannot manage the systems or resources of other workgroup
members.
21. Which of the following is not true about workgroups?
a. A workgroup member bids to become the administrator among all
workgroups.
b. A workgroup member may have several different user accounts to allow access to
different workgroup devices.
c. The lack of a central authority is a strength of workgroups.
d. The lack of a central authority is a weakness of workgroups.
22. How is a workgroup created?
a. All members of the proposed workgroup must input the same configuration
details at the same time.
b. All members of the proposed workgroup must opt out of the network and join the
workgroup.
c. A unique name is defined to identify the workgroup on a computer.
d. None of the above
23. What is true about a wide area network?
a. It is within a limited geographic area.
b. It must be confined to one room.
c. It can expand across the globe or into outer space.
d. It requires special licensing from the FCC.
24. What does SLA stand for?
a. Selective Listing Agreement
b. Service Length Assignment
c. Service Level Agreement
d. Single LAN Administrator
25. Which is true about terminal services?
a. It is very expensive and requires additional authorization.
b. It may only be employed at the end of a network.
c. It is experiencing a resurgence with the advent of cloud technologies.
d. It was used in the past but is not a valid technology today.
, 26. Why might a computer be referred to as a “thin client”?
a. It functions like a terminal.
b. It is accessed only by an iPad.
c. It is a device where each part is sold separately and must be assembled.
d. The case is manufactured for extremely tight locations.
27. What term means the ability to use a local computer system remotely and take over
control of another computer over a network?
a. Controlled deployment
b. Distance-enabled
c. Remote control
d. Transient access
28. What technology allows a local keyboard and mouse to control a system that is located
someplace else?
a. Controlled deployment
b. Distance-enabled
c. Remote control
d. Transient access
29. How do remote control and remote access differ?
a. Remote access allows for control of another system, while remote control allows
access to resources stored on a device or network.
b. Remote access is for network devices controlled by your organization, while
remote control is for devices controlled by a different organization.
c. Remote control allows for control of another system, while remote access
allows access to resources stored on a device or network.
d. Remote control is for network devices controlled by your organization, while
remote access is for devices controlled by a different organization
30. Which of the following is an example of a boundary network?
a. DMZ
b. LAN
c. WAN
d. None of the above
True or False Questions
31. A DMZ best describes a network that hosts resource servers for a public network (T/F).
TRUE
32. Multiple network interface cards (NIC) can be used in a device (T/F). TRUE
33. If network traffic exceeds 95%, a switch may revert to flooding to ensure receipt of
packets (T/F). FALSE
34. Redirection of traffic could occur if a switch fails (T/F). TRUE
35. The IP header is from the packet in the Network Layer (T/F). TRUE
36. OPSF is a common routing protocol (T/F). TRUE
37. A sniffer is also known as a default analyzer (T/F). FALSE
38. Abort is part of a bridge process (T/F). FALSE
39. Source routing and remote access are two types of bridges (T/F). FALSE
Kinsey
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
Quizzes, Midterm and final exams are included (if available in the original resources).
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
⚠️Note on Answer Keys: If the answer key is not included within the chapter
questions, you will find the complete answers and solutions at the end of each
chapter.
✅ Why Buy From Us?
📚 Complete & organized chapter-by-chapter – no missing content, no guessing.
⚡ Instant digital delivery – get your file the moment you pay, no waiting.
📅 Always up to date – we track new editions so you always get the latest version.
💬 Friendly support – real humans ready to help, anytime you need us.
🔒 Safe & secure – thousands of satisfied students trust us every semester.
🛡️Our Guarantees
💰 Money-Back Guarantee: Not satisfied? We offer a full refund – no questions asked.
🔄 Wrong File? No Problem: Contact us and we will replace it immediately with the
correct version, free of charge.
⏰ 24/7 Support: We are always here – reach out anytime and expect a fast response.
,Network Security, Firewalls, and VPNs, 4th Edition TestBank
ANSWERS ARE BOLDED – CHANGE BEFORE USE!
Chapter 1
Multiple Choice
1. In network security, what is meant by permission?
a. The ability granted on a network
b. Authorization to access an asset
c. Initial, conditional trust
d. Confidentiality of data
2. Which of the following is not one of the three primary security objectives sought by
organizations?
a. Privacy
b. Nonrepudiation
c. Uptime
d. Duplication
3. What is the protection against downtime?
a. Authentication
b. Availability
c. Anonymity
d. Authorization
4. What is the security principle that prevents a user from denying they performed an
action?
a. Access control
b. Nonrepudiation
c. Privacy
d. Integrity
5. Which of the following is not an example of a network security violation?
a. Natural disaster
b. Hardware failure
c. Ignorance
d. Updates
6. What is the correct term for the action of addressing risk?
a. Countermeasure
b. Patching
c. Exploit
d. Accident
7. What is the purpose of an AUP?
a. Provide encryption for data on the network
b. Identify appropriate use of resources
c. Increase the number of addresses available
d. Determine an appropriate countermeasure
8. Which of the following is not a response mode?
a. Contain
b. Encrypt
, c. Repair
d. Respond
9. What is the process of purging a storage device to be discarded by filling its space with
zeros?
a. Degaussing
b. Editing
c. Emptying
d. Zeroization
10. What is any tool or technique that makes hacking your network less attractive than
hacking another network?
a. Deterrent
b. Script kiddie
c. Strong passwords
d. Version control
11. Which type of hacker does so for the money they can get in ransom or by selling
information?
a. Hacktivist
b. Professional
c. Script kiddie
d. Recreational
12. Which type of hacker does so to right some perceived wrong or for what they believe is
the greater good?
a. Hacktivist
b. Professional
c. Script kiddie
d. Recreational
13. Which type of hacker does so because they happened upon a vulnerable site or tried a
method of access, and it worked?
a. Hacktivist
b. Opportunistic
c. Script kiddie
d. Recreational
14. Which type of hacker is incapable of hacking on their own and relies on hacks written by
others?
a. Hacktivist
b. Professional
c. Script kiddie
d. Recreational
15. What is the term for gaining access to resources or systems which were not granted
intentionally by the company?
a. Defense in depth
b. Least privilege
c. Privilege escalation
d. Zeroization
16. What is the phase of hacking that incorporates footprinting?
a. Attacking
, b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
17. What hacking phase involves discovery and listing of potential attack targets?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
18. Which hacking phase is usually the briefest and could include adjustments to shell code?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
19. Which of the following is not a common post-attack activity?
a. Adding additional hacker tools
b. Creating a backdoor
c. Adding false data
d. Removing evidence of the hack
20. Which hacking phase commonly includes footprinting?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
21. Which hacking phase commonly includes reviewing an organization’s website?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
22. Which hacking phase commonly includes reviewing court cases?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
23. Which hacking phase commonly includes activities that are silent and unobtrusive?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
24. Which of the following is not a common activity in the scanning phase of a hack?
a. Eavesdropping
b. Ping sweeps
c. Port scanning
d. Wardriving
25. What is the proper term for using a sniffer to locate wireless networks?
a. Bannering
b. Execution
, c. Ping sweep
d. Wardriving
26. Which hacking phase includes learning sufficient details to know if a vulnerability exists
that they can attack?
a. Attacking
b. Enumeration
c. Reconnaissance
d. Scanning
27. What benefit does a hacker get by probing open and closed ports of a target?
a. Acknowledgment
b. Data transfer
c. OS identification
d. Packet modification
28. What is meant by “banner grabbing” in hacking?
a. Altering the information hosted on a website to embarrass the organization
b. Copying a banner on a website to set up a rogue version of the site
c. Probing services on open ports to obtain information
d. Transposing the services to redirect traffic and confuse servers
29. If a hacker requests information concerning a service running on a system, which of the
following options describes what could occur next?
a. A response could be sent with the requested information
b. The request could be ignored, and nothing would be sent
c. Both A or B
d. Neither A nor B
30. What information could be learned from a service request if the server is insecure?
a. Birthdates
b. Host IDs
c. System name
d. User salary
True or False Questions
31. The attacking phase may include adjusting shell code (T/F). TRUE
32. Modern hacks are much faster and are usually achieved within an hour or less (T/F).
FALSE
33. An example of a fallback attack is social engineering (T/F). TRUE
34. Ascension is the attempt to gain higher levels of access from a target (T/F). FALSE
35. Zero-day attacks essentially have no defense (T/F). TRUE
36. Every malware incident is an advanced persistent threat (APT) (T/F). FALSE
37. A trap door is an electronic landmine (T/F). FALSE
38. Auditing all system accounts is the best defense against a hacker’s rogue account (T/F).
TRUE
39. RAID is the best defense against hardware failure (T/F). TRUE
40. A virus works without power (T/F). FALSE
,Chapter 2
Multiple Choice
1. A switch using the MAC address to differentiate traffic operates on what level?
a. Layer 1 (Physical)
b. Layer 2 (Data Link)
c. Layer 3 (Network)
d. Layer 4 (Transport)
2. Which of the following refers to the collection of MAC addresses in a switch?
a. Drop
b. Flood
c. Forward
d. Learn
3. Which of the following refers to the transmission of a frame to every port?
a. Flooding
b. Swarming
c. Swatting
d. Tumbling
4. What is another name for a protocol converter?
a. Bridge
b. Brouter
c. Router
d. Gateway
5. Which physical topology requires the use of a token?
a. Bus
b. Mesh
c. Ring
d. Star
6. Which type of physical ring topology offers redundancy?
a. Bidirectional
b. Clockwise
c. Counterclockwise
d. Unidirectional
7. Which topology is available in two forms: full and partial?
a. Bus
b. Mesh
c. Ring
d. Star
8. What is the concept that denies access to network resources to those persons and systems
without a legitimate need?
a. Deny list
b. Least privilege
c. Load balancing
d. Multifactor authentication
9. On what level do VLANs operate?
a. Layer 1 (Physical)
, b. Layer 2 (Data Link)
c. Layer 3 (Network)
d. Layer 4 (Transport)
10. Which of the following is the subnet mask used when a single host sends messages to
multiple network devices?
a. Experimental
b. Multicast
c. Private
d. Public
11. Which of the following migration strategies allows an IPv4 host to talk to an IPv6 host?
a. Dual-stack
b. Multi-mode
c. Translation
d. Tunneling
12. Which of the following is an example of an IPv6 address?
a. 2001:0f58::1986:2af
b. 2001:0f58:0000:0000:0000:1986:62af
c. 2001:0f58:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1986:62af
d. None of the above
13. Which of the following is not a benefit of IPv6 addressing?
a. Better QoS for all types of applications
b. Increased address space
c. Most efficient routing
d. Timeout for inquiries
14. Which of the following is true about IPv6 plug-and-play?
a. IPv6 does not support DHCP plug-and-play.
b. IPV6 supports plug-and-play with or without DHCP.
c. IPv6 only supports plug-and-play with NAT.
d. None of the above is true concerning IPv6 plug-and-play.
15. Which of the following transition mechanisms from IPv4 to IPv6 allows for both protocol
stacks to coexist in the same terminal or network equipment?
a. Dual-stack
b. Translation
c. Tunneling
d. None of the above
16. Which of the following transition mechanisms from IPv4 to IPv6 enables an IPv4 host to
talk to an IPv6 host?
a. Dual-stack
b. Translation
c. Tunneling
d. None of the above
17. Which of the following transition mechanisms from IPv4 to IPv6 exists but still requires
additional development, as it is not fully capable?
a. Dual-stack
b. Translation
c. Tunneling
, d. None of the above
18. Which of the following is true about IPSec?
a. Both IPv4 and IPv6 require the use of IPSec
b. IPv4 IPSec uses only an Authentication Header (AH)
c. IPv6 IPSec does not provide data origin authentication
d. IPSec is a mandatory component for IPv6
19. Which of the following is not a benefit of the IPv6 IPSec use of cryptography?
a. Confidentiality
b. Data origin authentication
c. Data integrity
d. Data verification
20. Which of the following is not a benefit of implementing a workgroup?
a. Centrally scheduled backups ensure data retention.
b. It is simple to manage for under 10 computers.
c. No central authority means each workgroup member controls their own system.
d. Workgroup members cannot manage the systems or resources of other workgroup
members.
21. Which of the following is not true about workgroups?
a. A workgroup member bids to become the administrator among all
workgroups.
b. A workgroup member may have several different user accounts to allow access to
different workgroup devices.
c. The lack of a central authority is a strength of workgroups.
d. The lack of a central authority is a weakness of workgroups.
22. How is a workgroup created?
a. All members of the proposed workgroup must input the same configuration
details at the same time.
b. All members of the proposed workgroup must opt out of the network and join the
workgroup.
c. A unique name is defined to identify the workgroup on a computer.
d. None of the above
23. What is true about a wide area network?
a. It is within a limited geographic area.
b. It must be confined to one room.
c. It can expand across the globe or into outer space.
d. It requires special licensing from the FCC.
24. What does SLA stand for?
a. Selective Listing Agreement
b. Service Length Assignment
c. Service Level Agreement
d. Single LAN Administrator
25. Which is true about terminal services?
a. It is very expensive and requires additional authorization.
b. It may only be employed at the end of a network.
c. It is experiencing a resurgence with the advent of cloud technologies.
d. It was used in the past but is not a valid technology today.
, 26. Why might a computer be referred to as a “thin client”?
a. It functions like a terminal.
b. It is accessed only by an iPad.
c. It is a device where each part is sold separately and must be assembled.
d. The case is manufactured for extremely tight locations.
27. What term means the ability to use a local computer system remotely and take over
control of another computer over a network?
a. Controlled deployment
b. Distance-enabled
c. Remote control
d. Transient access
28. What technology allows a local keyboard and mouse to control a system that is located
someplace else?
a. Controlled deployment
b. Distance-enabled
c. Remote control
d. Transient access
29. How do remote control and remote access differ?
a. Remote access allows for control of another system, while remote control allows
access to resources stored on a device or network.
b. Remote access is for network devices controlled by your organization, while
remote control is for devices controlled by a different organization.
c. Remote control allows for control of another system, while remote access
allows access to resources stored on a device or network.
d. Remote control is for network devices controlled by your organization, while
remote access is for devices controlled by a different organization
30. Which of the following is an example of a boundary network?
a. DMZ
b. LAN
c. WAN
d. None of the above
True or False Questions
31. A DMZ best describes a network that hosts resource servers for a public network (T/F).
TRUE
32. Multiple network interface cards (NIC) can be used in a device (T/F). TRUE
33. If network traffic exceeds 95%, a switch may revert to flooding to ensure receipt of
packets (T/F). FALSE
34. Redirection of traffic could occur if a switch fails (T/F). TRUE
35. The IP header is from the packet in the Network Layer (T/F). TRUE
36. OPSF is a common routing protocol (T/F). TRUE
37. A sniffer is also known as a default analyzer (T/F). FALSE
38. Abort is part of a bridge process (T/F). FALSE
39. Source routing and remote access are two types of bridges (T/F). FALSE
