, TESTBANK FOR Koneman's Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic
Microbiology Seventh Edition Procop
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
Quizzes, Midterm and final exams are included (if available in the original resources).
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
⚠️Note on Answer Keys: If the answer key is not included within the chapter
questions, you will find the complete answers and solutions at the end of each
chapter.
✅ Why Buy From Us?
📚 Complete & organized chapter-by-chapter – no missing content, no guessing.
⚡ Instant digital delivery – get your file the moment you pay, no waiting.
📅 Always up to date – we track new editions so you always get the latest version.
💬 Friendly support – real humans ready to help, anytime you need us.
🔒 Safe & secure – thousands of satisfied students trust us every semester.
🛡️Our Guarantees
💰 Money-Back Guarantee: Not satisfied? We offer a full refund – no questions asked.
🔄 Wrong File? No Problem: Contact us and we will replace it immediately with the
correct version, free of charge.
⏰ 24/7 Support: We are always here – reach out anytime and expect a fast response.
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
Chapter 01: Introduction to Microbiology Part I: The Role of the Microbiology Laboratory
in the Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases: Guidelines to Practice and Management
1. Which emerging pathogen was recognized as late as 2013?
A. Legionella
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Ebola virus
D. Chikungunya virus
E. Hantaan virus
2. When organisms exist together and neither benefit nor are damaged, it is termed:
A. parasitism.
B. symbiosis.
C. mutualism.
D. commensalism.
E. predatorism.
3. When two organisms live together and one benefits at the expense of the other (i.e., one lives
off the other), this situation is:
A. parasitism.
B. symbiosis.
C. mutualism.
D. commensalism.
E. phoresis.
4. Virulence is best defined as:
A. the sum of the characteristics that increase the ability of a microorganism to cause disease.
B. that which requires the production of endotoxins.
C. that which requires the production of exotoxins.
D. the ability of a microorganism to produce hydrolytic enzymes.
E. that which necessitates the production of a capsule.
5. Rickettsia, Ehrlichia, and Anaplasma are examples of which group of organisms?
A. Opportunistic pathogens
B. Nosocomial pathogens
C. Obligate intracellular pathogens
D. Facultatively intracellular pathogens
E. Free-living pathogens
6. Which type of cell is the primary cell of response in acute inflammation?
A. Plasma cell
B. Macrophage
C. T cell
D. Dendritic cell
E. Neutrophil
© Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC. NOT FOR SALE OR DISTRIBUTION 1-1
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
7. Which microorganism is characterized primarily by an acute inflammatory response?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Mycobacterium avium
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Histoplasma capsulatum
8. Which of the following represents the final phase of the diagnostic cycle?
A. The physician examines the patient.
B. Electronic or written orders are submitted.
C. The specimen is received in the laboratory.
D. The requested tests are performed.
E. The physician interprets the report and institutes therapy.
9. Which is true regarding tissue or aspirate specimens compared with swab specimens?
A. Swab specimens are generally considered superior to tissue or aspirate specimens.
B. Swab specimens are equivalent to deep biopsy or aspirate specimen when assessing wounds.
C. Swabs are generally considered inferior to tissue or aspirate, particularly if potentially
contaminating microbiota is present.
D. Tissue and aspirate specimens should be avoided at all costs, as they are patient dissatisfiers.
E. Swab specimens are unacceptable to collect pharyngeal specimens for group A Streptococcus
testing.
10. When cultures are ordered, what other test should usually also be performed?
A. Serologic studies
B. Molecular studies
C. Antigen-detection assays
D. A complete blood count
E. A direct examination (i.e., smears/Gram's stain, etc.)
11. A respiratory specimen contaminated with squamous epithelial cells is received in the
laboratory. Which of the tests ordered should be rejected?
A. The mycobacterial culture
B. The fungal culture
C. The influenza RT-PCR request
D. The aerobic bacterial culture
E. The Pneumocystis PCR or smear
12. It has been suggested that which of the following tests be discontinued because of lack of
sensitivity and specificity?
A. The acid-fast stain for mycobacteria
B. Gram's stain
C. Bacterial antigen-detection tests on CSF
D. Midstream-collected urine culture
E. Respiratory cultures from sputa
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 1-2
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
13. What two cell types are evaluated in Murray and Washington's assessment of sputum
specimens?
A. Plasma cells and epithelial cells
B. Neutrophils and epithelial cells
C. Lymphocytes and neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes and plasma cells
E. Neutrophils and plasma cells
14. What is the advantage of fluorochrome staining?
A. It has greater sensitivity than Ziehl–Neelsen staining for mycobacteria.
B. It has greater specificity than Ziehl–Neelsen staining for mycobacteria.
C. It has both a greater sensitivity and specificity compared with Ziehl–Neelsen staining for
mycobacteria.
D. Smears can be assessed at a lower initial magnification.
E. It preferentially highlights rapidly growing mycobacteria.
15. Lactophenol cotton blue is used predominantly in which preparation?
A. Fluorochrome staining
B. Culture assessment in mycology
C. Direct examination in virology
D. Real-time PCR
E. The fourth-generation HIV assay
16. Which of the following medium is selective for (i.e., enhances the growth of) gram-positive
bacteria?
A. Cefsulodin, Irgasan, Novobiocin (CIN) agar
B. Colistin, Nalidixic acid (CNA)
C. Eosin methylene blue (EMB)
D. Hektoen enteric agar (HE)
E. Mycobiotic agar
17. Although the smelling of culture plates is discouraged, sometime one can detect the odor of
particular bacteria when working up cultures. Which organism characteristically smells like
bleach?
A. Citrobacter
B. Alkaligenes
C. Clostridium
D. Eikenella
E. Pseudomonas
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 1-3
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
18. Which rapid test is useful for the preliminary grouping of a gram-positive coccus as a
Staphylococcus?
A. Bacitracin disk susceptibility
B. A positive CAMP test
C. Optochin susceptibility
D. Catalase positivity
E. Hippurate hydrolysis
19. The L-pyrrolidonyl--naphthylamide (PYR) test is most commonly used for the rapid
identification of which organism?
A. Listeria
B. Enterococcus
C. Micrococcus
D. Escherichia
E. Trichosporon
20. Which test should be performed in a prompt manner because a delayed result in an infected
patient could lead to death?
A. CSF PCR for herpes simplex virus
B. HIV genotyping
C. Malaria smear
D. Urine culture
E. Stool ova and parasite microscopic examination
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 1-4
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
Answer Key
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. E
7. D
8. E
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. C
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 1-5
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
Chapter 02: Introduction to Microbiology Part II: Guidelines for the Collection,
Transport, Processing, Analysis, and Reporting of Cultures from Specific Specimen
Sources
1. Which of the following bacterium is a cause of “culture-negative” endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus lugdunensis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Enterococcus durans
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Candida albicans
2. It is recommended that a set of blood cultures contain which of the following?
A. A lysis-centrifugation tube and one anaerobic tube
B. A lysis-centrifugation tube and one aerobic tube
C. One aerobic bottle and one anaerobic bottle
D. Two anaerobic bottles, if an anaerobic infection is suspected
E. Two aerobic bottles, if an aerobic infection is suspected
3. Which parameter is most closely correlated with the sensitivity of the blood culture?
A. The decontamination of the skin
B. The type of commercial system used
C. The volume of blood drawn
D. The transport time to the laboratory
E. The education level of the technologist accessioning the specimen and loading the blood
culture bottles onto the instrument
4. Which infection causes continuous bacteremia and may be detected with a fewer number of
blood cultures?
A. Liver abscess
B. Meningitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Urinary tract infection
E. Endocarditis
5. Which of the following organism is a common cause of keratitis?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Bacteroides fragilis group
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 2-1
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
6. Which microorganism is most likely the cause of a rapidly progressive meningoencephalitis
that occurred in a child after swimming in brackish water?
A. Haemophilus influenza
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. West Nile virus
E. Naegleria fowleri
7. Which Streptococcus species is most likely to be recovered from a brain abscess?
A. S. pyogenes
B. S. agalactiae
C. S. anginosus
D. S. bovis
E. S. equisimilis
8. The Nugent scoring system is important for the microscopic diagnosis of what disease?
A. Pneumonia
B. Meningitis
C. Vaginitis
D. Urinary tract infection
E. Wound infection
9. What supplementation is required for the cultivation of Haemophilus ducreyi?
A. No supplementation is required.
B. Factor X (hemin)
C. Factor V (NAD)
D. Both the X and V factors are required.
E. Pyridoxal (vitamin B6)
10. Which parasite is sexually transmitted?
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Hookworm
11. Which of the following organisms cause granuloma inguinale?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis, serotypes L1, L2, and L3
B. Klebsiella granulomatis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Haemophilus ducreyi
E. Herpes simplex virus
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 2-2
, Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
12. Which of the following is a cause of nongonococcal urethritis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
D. Candida albicans
E. Proteus vulgaris
13. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with a urinary tract infection?
A. Corticosteroid use
B. Chronic indwelling urinary tract catheter
C. Chronic indwelling vascular catheter
D. Hemodialysis
E. Peritoneal dialysis
14. Which group is at the highest risk for a urinary tract infection?
A. Elderly men
B. Sexually active women
C. Swimmers
D. Wrestlers
E. Drinkers of well water
15. Which of the following is a likely cause of a urinary tract infection?
A. -Hemolytic streptococci
B. Lactobacillus brevis
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Diphtheroids
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
16. What is a -hemolytic bacterium, other than Streptococcus pyogenes, that causes
pharyngitis and rash?
A. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
17. Which of the following organisms should be suspected if sinuses draining from the neck
occur in a chronically infected patient?
A. Staphylococcus lugdunensis
B. Actinomyces israelii
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Enterococcus faecalis
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 2-3
Microbiology Seventh Edition Procop
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
Quizzes, Midterm and final exams are included (if available in the original resources).
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
⚠️Note on Answer Keys: If the answer key is not included within the chapter
questions, you will find the complete answers and solutions at the end of each
chapter.
✅ Why Buy From Us?
📚 Complete & organized chapter-by-chapter – no missing content, no guessing.
⚡ Instant digital delivery – get your file the moment you pay, no waiting.
📅 Always up to date – we track new editions so you always get the latest version.
💬 Friendly support – real humans ready to help, anytime you need us.
🔒 Safe & secure – thousands of satisfied students trust us every semester.
🛡️Our Guarantees
💰 Money-Back Guarantee: Not satisfied? We offer a full refund – no questions asked.
🔄 Wrong File? No Problem: Contact us and we will replace it immediately with the
correct version, free of charge.
⏰ 24/7 Support: We are always here – reach out anytime and expect a fast response.
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
Chapter 01: Introduction to Microbiology Part I: The Role of the Microbiology Laboratory
in the Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases: Guidelines to Practice and Management
1. Which emerging pathogen was recognized as late as 2013?
A. Legionella
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Ebola virus
D. Chikungunya virus
E. Hantaan virus
2. When organisms exist together and neither benefit nor are damaged, it is termed:
A. parasitism.
B. symbiosis.
C. mutualism.
D. commensalism.
E. predatorism.
3. When two organisms live together and one benefits at the expense of the other (i.e., one lives
off the other), this situation is:
A. parasitism.
B. symbiosis.
C. mutualism.
D. commensalism.
E. phoresis.
4. Virulence is best defined as:
A. the sum of the characteristics that increase the ability of a microorganism to cause disease.
B. that which requires the production of endotoxins.
C. that which requires the production of exotoxins.
D. the ability of a microorganism to produce hydrolytic enzymes.
E. that which necessitates the production of a capsule.
5. Rickettsia, Ehrlichia, and Anaplasma are examples of which group of organisms?
A. Opportunistic pathogens
B. Nosocomial pathogens
C. Obligate intracellular pathogens
D. Facultatively intracellular pathogens
E. Free-living pathogens
6. Which type of cell is the primary cell of response in acute inflammation?
A. Plasma cell
B. Macrophage
C. T cell
D. Dendritic cell
E. Neutrophil
© Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC. NOT FOR SALE OR DISTRIBUTION 1-1
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
7. Which microorganism is characterized primarily by an acute inflammatory response?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Mycobacterium avium
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Histoplasma capsulatum
8. Which of the following represents the final phase of the diagnostic cycle?
A. The physician examines the patient.
B. Electronic or written orders are submitted.
C. The specimen is received in the laboratory.
D. The requested tests are performed.
E. The physician interprets the report and institutes therapy.
9. Which is true regarding tissue or aspirate specimens compared with swab specimens?
A. Swab specimens are generally considered superior to tissue or aspirate specimens.
B. Swab specimens are equivalent to deep biopsy or aspirate specimen when assessing wounds.
C. Swabs are generally considered inferior to tissue or aspirate, particularly if potentially
contaminating microbiota is present.
D. Tissue and aspirate specimens should be avoided at all costs, as they are patient dissatisfiers.
E. Swab specimens are unacceptable to collect pharyngeal specimens for group A Streptococcus
testing.
10. When cultures are ordered, what other test should usually also be performed?
A. Serologic studies
B. Molecular studies
C. Antigen-detection assays
D. A complete blood count
E. A direct examination (i.e., smears/Gram's stain, etc.)
11. A respiratory specimen contaminated with squamous epithelial cells is received in the
laboratory. Which of the tests ordered should be rejected?
A. The mycobacterial culture
B. The fungal culture
C. The influenza RT-PCR request
D. The aerobic bacterial culture
E. The Pneumocystis PCR or smear
12. It has been suggested that which of the following tests be discontinued because of lack of
sensitivity and specificity?
A. The acid-fast stain for mycobacteria
B. Gram's stain
C. Bacterial antigen-detection tests on CSF
D. Midstream-collected urine culture
E. Respiratory cultures from sputa
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 1-2
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
13. What two cell types are evaluated in Murray and Washington's assessment of sputum
specimens?
A. Plasma cells and epithelial cells
B. Neutrophils and epithelial cells
C. Lymphocytes and neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes and plasma cells
E. Neutrophils and plasma cells
14. What is the advantage of fluorochrome staining?
A. It has greater sensitivity than Ziehl–Neelsen staining for mycobacteria.
B. It has greater specificity than Ziehl–Neelsen staining for mycobacteria.
C. It has both a greater sensitivity and specificity compared with Ziehl–Neelsen staining for
mycobacteria.
D. Smears can be assessed at a lower initial magnification.
E. It preferentially highlights rapidly growing mycobacteria.
15. Lactophenol cotton blue is used predominantly in which preparation?
A. Fluorochrome staining
B. Culture assessment in mycology
C. Direct examination in virology
D. Real-time PCR
E. The fourth-generation HIV assay
16. Which of the following medium is selective for (i.e., enhances the growth of) gram-positive
bacteria?
A. Cefsulodin, Irgasan, Novobiocin (CIN) agar
B. Colistin, Nalidixic acid (CNA)
C. Eosin methylene blue (EMB)
D. Hektoen enteric agar (HE)
E. Mycobiotic agar
17. Although the smelling of culture plates is discouraged, sometime one can detect the odor of
particular bacteria when working up cultures. Which organism characteristically smells like
bleach?
A. Citrobacter
B. Alkaligenes
C. Clostridium
D. Eikenella
E. Pseudomonas
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 1-3
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
18. Which rapid test is useful for the preliminary grouping of a gram-positive coccus as a
Staphylococcus?
A. Bacitracin disk susceptibility
B. A positive CAMP test
C. Optochin susceptibility
D. Catalase positivity
E. Hippurate hydrolysis
19. The L-pyrrolidonyl--naphthylamide (PYR) test is most commonly used for the rapid
identification of which organism?
A. Listeria
B. Enterococcus
C. Micrococcus
D. Escherichia
E. Trichosporon
20. Which test should be performed in a prompt manner because a delayed result in an infected
patient could lead to death?
A. CSF PCR for herpes simplex virus
B. HIV genotyping
C. Malaria smear
D. Urine culture
E. Stool ova and parasite microscopic examination
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 1-4
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
Answer Key
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. E
7. D
8. E
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. C
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 1-5
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
Chapter 02: Introduction to Microbiology Part II: Guidelines for the Collection,
Transport, Processing, Analysis, and Reporting of Cultures from Specific Specimen
Sources
1. Which of the following bacterium is a cause of “culture-negative” endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus lugdunensis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Enterococcus durans
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Candida albicans
2. It is recommended that a set of blood cultures contain which of the following?
A. A lysis-centrifugation tube and one anaerobic tube
B. A lysis-centrifugation tube and one aerobic tube
C. One aerobic bottle and one anaerobic bottle
D. Two anaerobic bottles, if an anaerobic infection is suspected
E. Two aerobic bottles, if an aerobic infection is suspected
3. Which parameter is most closely correlated with the sensitivity of the blood culture?
A. The decontamination of the skin
B. The type of commercial system used
C. The volume of blood drawn
D. The transport time to the laboratory
E. The education level of the technologist accessioning the specimen and loading the blood
culture bottles onto the instrument
4. Which infection causes continuous bacteremia and may be detected with a fewer number of
blood cultures?
A. Liver abscess
B. Meningitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Urinary tract infection
E. Endocarditis
5. Which of the following organism is a common cause of keratitis?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Bacteroides fragilis group
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 2-1
,Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
6. Which microorganism is most likely the cause of a rapidly progressive meningoencephalitis
that occurred in a child after swimming in brackish water?
A. Haemophilus influenza
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. West Nile virus
E. Naegleria fowleri
7. Which Streptococcus species is most likely to be recovered from a brain abscess?
A. S. pyogenes
B. S. agalactiae
C. S. anginosus
D. S. bovis
E. S. equisimilis
8. The Nugent scoring system is important for the microscopic diagnosis of what disease?
A. Pneumonia
B. Meningitis
C. Vaginitis
D. Urinary tract infection
E. Wound infection
9. What supplementation is required for the cultivation of Haemophilus ducreyi?
A. No supplementation is required.
B. Factor X (hemin)
C. Factor V (NAD)
D. Both the X and V factors are required.
E. Pyridoxal (vitamin B6)
10. Which parasite is sexually transmitted?
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Hookworm
11. Which of the following organisms cause granuloma inguinale?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis, serotypes L1, L2, and L3
B. Klebsiella granulomatis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Haemophilus ducreyi
E. Herpes simplex virus
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 2-2
, Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Seventh Edition
Gary W. Procop; Deirdre L. Church; Geraldine S. Hall; William M. Janda; Elmer W. Koneman; Paul C.
Schreckenberger; Gail L. Woods
12. Which of the following is a cause of nongonococcal urethritis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
D. Candida albicans
E. Proteus vulgaris
13. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with a urinary tract infection?
A. Corticosteroid use
B. Chronic indwelling urinary tract catheter
C. Chronic indwelling vascular catheter
D. Hemodialysis
E. Peritoneal dialysis
14. Which group is at the highest risk for a urinary tract infection?
A. Elderly men
B. Sexually active women
C. Swimmers
D. Wrestlers
E. Drinkers of well water
15. Which of the following is a likely cause of a urinary tract infection?
A. -Hemolytic streptococci
B. Lactobacillus brevis
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Diphtheroids
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
16. What is a -hemolytic bacterium, other than Streptococcus pyogenes, that causes
pharyngitis and rash?
A. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
17. Which of the following organisms should be suspected if sinuses draining from the neck
occur in a chronically infected patient?
A. Staphylococcus lugdunensis
B. Actinomyces israelii
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Enterococcus faecalis
Copyright © 2017 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning company 2-3
