NURS110 Introduction to Professional Nursing Assessment 2 |
Latest Update 2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified
Answers | WCU Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded
1. A nurse is evaluating a research study comparing two interventions for postoperative pain
management. The study uses a randomized controlled trial design with a crossover component. Which
factor most critically threatens the internal validity of this design?
A. Selection bias due to nonrandom assignment
B. Carryover effects from the first intervention to the second
C. Maturation of participants over the study period
D. Hawthorne effect from increased attention during the study
Answer: B. In crossover designs, carryover effects occur when the effect of the first treatment persists
into the second period, confounding results. This is a primary threat to internal validity. Selection bias is
minimized by randomization; maturation is less of a threat in shortterm pain studies; Hawthorne effect
affects both periods equally and is controlled by crossover.
2. A nursing unit is implementing a quality improvement initiative to reduce catheterassociated urinary
tract infections (CAUTI). The team uses the PlanDoStudyAct (PDSA) cycle. After implementing a new
insertion checklist, they observe a 20% reduction in CAUTI rates over three months. Which action should
the team take next to ensure sustained improvement?
A. Declare the intervention successful and discontinue data collection
B. Expand the checklist to other units without further testing
C. Analyze the data for variation and refine the checklist based on feedback
D. Replace the checklist with a different intervention to compare effectiveness
Answer: C. The PDSA cycle emphasizes iterative testing and refinement. After initial success, the team
should study the data to understand variability and use feedback to improve the checklist before
spreading it. Declaring success prematurely or expanding without refinement risks failure.
,3. A nurse is caring for a patient with a donotresuscitate (DNR) order who develops respiratory distress.
The family requests that the nurse initiate mechanical ventilation despite the DNR. Which ethical
principle most directly conflicts with the family's request?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Justice
Answer: A. Autonomy refers to the patient's right to make their own healthcare decisions. A DNR order
reflects the patient's autonomous choice. The family's request to override the DNR conflicts with respect
for the patient's autonomy.
4. What is the definition of informed consent?
A. A legal document that protects healthcare providers from liability
B. A fundamental ethical and legal principle ensuring patients understand and voluntarily agree to
medical treatments/procedures
C. A form signed by the family when the patient is unable to consent
D. A verbal agreement between the patient and the healthcare provider
Answer: B. Informed consent is a fundamental ethical and legal principle ensuring that patients
understand and voluntarily agree to medical treatments or procedures.
5. What is the purpose of informed consent?
A. To protect the healthcare provider from lawsuits
, B. To respect patient autonomy, establish trust, and create a legal record of the patient's agreement to
treatment
C. To ensure the patient follows all medical advice
D. To document the patient's medical history
Answer: B. The purpose of informed consent is to respect patient autonomy, establish trust between
patient and provider, and create a legal record of the patient's agreement to treatment.
6. A nurse attempts to obtain an order for a feeding tube for an anorexic teenager who refuses to eat.
What is the term for the ethical problem this nurse is experiencing?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Paternalism
D. Justice
Answer: C. Paternalism occurs when a healthcare provider makes decisions for a patient, overriding the
patient's autonomy, with the belief that it is in the patient's best interest.
7. What are the four functions of ethics committees?
A. Education, policy making, case review, and consultation
B. Research, documentation, litigation, and mediation
C. Treatment, diagnosis, prognosis, and prevention
D. Administration, finance, staffing, and quality improvement
Answer: A. The four functions of ethics committees are education, policy making, case review, and
consultation.
, 8. What are the mandatory reporting requirements for child abuse?
A. Report to Child Protective Services within 72 hours
B. Report to Child Protective Services and submit a written report within 36 hours
C. Report only if there is physical evidence of abuse
D. Report only if the child gives permission
Answer: B. Child abuse (under 18 years old) must be reported to Child Protective Services with a written
report within 36 hours. Reasonable suspicion must be reported.
9. What are the mandatory reporting requirements for elder abuse?
A. Report within 72 hours to Adult Protective Services
B. Report within 24 hours to Adult Protective Services
C. Report only if the elder consents
D. Report only if there is visible physical injury
Answer: B. Suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an elder must be reported within 24
hours to Adult Protective Services.
10. What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
A. Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion
B. Alarm, Coping, Recovery
C. Stress, Adaptation, Recovery
Latest Update 2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified
Answers | WCU Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded
1. A nurse is evaluating a research study comparing two interventions for postoperative pain
management. The study uses a randomized controlled trial design with a crossover component. Which
factor most critically threatens the internal validity of this design?
A. Selection bias due to nonrandom assignment
B. Carryover effects from the first intervention to the second
C. Maturation of participants over the study period
D. Hawthorne effect from increased attention during the study
Answer: B. In crossover designs, carryover effects occur when the effect of the first treatment persists
into the second period, confounding results. This is a primary threat to internal validity. Selection bias is
minimized by randomization; maturation is less of a threat in shortterm pain studies; Hawthorne effect
affects both periods equally and is controlled by crossover.
2. A nursing unit is implementing a quality improvement initiative to reduce catheterassociated urinary
tract infections (CAUTI). The team uses the PlanDoStudyAct (PDSA) cycle. After implementing a new
insertion checklist, they observe a 20% reduction in CAUTI rates over three months. Which action should
the team take next to ensure sustained improvement?
A. Declare the intervention successful and discontinue data collection
B. Expand the checklist to other units without further testing
C. Analyze the data for variation and refine the checklist based on feedback
D. Replace the checklist with a different intervention to compare effectiveness
Answer: C. The PDSA cycle emphasizes iterative testing and refinement. After initial success, the team
should study the data to understand variability and use feedback to improve the checklist before
spreading it. Declaring success prematurely or expanding without refinement risks failure.
,3. A nurse is caring for a patient with a donotresuscitate (DNR) order who develops respiratory distress.
The family requests that the nurse initiate mechanical ventilation despite the DNR. Which ethical
principle most directly conflicts with the family's request?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Justice
Answer: A. Autonomy refers to the patient's right to make their own healthcare decisions. A DNR order
reflects the patient's autonomous choice. The family's request to override the DNR conflicts with respect
for the patient's autonomy.
4. What is the definition of informed consent?
A. A legal document that protects healthcare providers from liability
B. A fundamental ethical and legal principle ensuring patients understand and voluntarily agree to
medical treatments/procedures
C. A form signed by the family when the patient is unable to consent
D. A verbal agreement between the patient and the healthcare provider
Answer: B. Informed consent is a fundamental ethical and legal principle ensuring that patients
understand and voluntarily agree to medical treatments or procedures.
5. What is the purpose of informed consent?
A. To protect the healthcare provider from lawsuits
, B. To respect patient autonomy, establish trust, and create a legal record of the patient's agreement to
treatment
C. To ensure the patient follows all medical advice
D. To document the patient's medical history
Answer: B. The purpose of informed consent is to respect patient autonomy, establish trust between
patient and provider, and create a legal record of the patient's agreement to treatment.
6. A nurse attempts to obtain an order for a feeding tube for an anorexic teenager who refuses to eat.
What is the term for the ethical problem this nurse is experiencing?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Paternalism
D. Justice
Answer: C. Paternalism occurs when a healthcare provider makes decisions for a patient, overriding the
patient's autonomy, with the belief that it is in the patient's best interest.
7. What are the four functions of ethics committees?
A. Education, policy making, case review, and consultation
B. Research, documentation, litigation, and mediation
C. Treatment, diagnosis, prognosis, and prevention
D. Administration, finance, staffing, and quality improvement
Answer: A. The four functions of ethics committees are education, policy making, case review, and
consultation.
, 8. What are the mandatory reporting requirements for child abuse?
A. Report to Child Protective Services within 72 hours
B. Report to Child Protective Services and submit a written report within 36 hours
C. Report only if there is physical evidence of abuse
D. Report only if the child gives permission
Answer: B. Child abuse (under 18 years old) must be reported to Child Protective Services with a written
report within 36 hours. Reasonable suspicion must be reported.
9. What are the mandatory reporting requirements for elder abuse?
A. Report within 72 hours to Adult Protective Services
B. Report within 24 hours to Adult Protective Services
C. Report only if the elder consents
D. Report only if there is visible physical injury
Answer: B. Suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an elder must be reported within 24
hours to Adult Protective Services.
10. What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
A. Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion
B. Alarm, Coping, Recovery
C. Stress, Adaptation, Recovery
