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2026 HESI RN Exit Exam | Latest Update 2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified Answers | NGN Nursing Questions | Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded

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This comprehensive 2026 HESI RN Exit Exam study guide provides 200 practice questions and verified answers with detailed rationales designed to support nursing students preparing for the HESI RN Exit Examination and Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) licensure readiness. The material covers all core nursing content areas including medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, maternal-newborn care, pediatrics, mental health nursing, leadership, patient safety, and clinical judgment, with NGN-style case-based scenarios, select-all-that-apply, ordered response, and dosage calculation questions. Each question includes detailed rationales to strengthen clinical reasoning and improve exam readiness. Perfect for nursing students seeking a top score and NCLEX-RN success.

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2026 HESI RN Exit Exam | Latest Update 2026/2027 | 200
Practice Questions & Verified Answers | NGN Nursing
Questions | Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded

SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Questions 125)



1. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a patient. Which action is most important for
patient safety?

A) Checking the patient's room number

B) Verifying the patient's identity using two identifiers

C) Asking the patient if they have taken the medication before

D) Checking the medication's expiration date



Answer: B) Verifying the patient's identity using two identifiers



Explanation: The most important action for medication safety is verifying the patient's identity using at
least two identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) per The Joint Commission's National Patient Safety
Goals. Room numbers are not reliable identifiers.




2. A patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery. Which finding indicates the patient may have
violated NPO status?

A) The patient reports feeling anxious

B) The patient's blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg

C) The patient has clear fluids in the stomach on assessment

D) The patient's heart rate is 72 beats per minute



Answer: C) The patient has clear fluids in the stomach on assessment

,Explanation: The presence of fluids in the stomach on assessment or auscultation indicates the patient
may have consumed fluids despite NPO orders. This increases the risk of aspiration during surgery.




3. A nurse is calculating the intake and output for a patient over 8 hours. The patient received IV fluids at
100 mL/hr, drank 240 mL of water, and had 400 mL of urine output. What is the patient's net fluid
balance?

A) +400 mL

B) +640 mL

C) +1040 mL

D) 400 mL



Answer: B) +640 mL



Explanation: Total intake = IV fluids (100 mL × 8 = 800 mL) + oral fluids (240 mL) = 1,040 mL. Output =
400 mL. Net balance = 1,040 400 = +640 mL.




4. A nurse is performing wound care for a patient with a pressure ulcer. Which finding indicates wound
healing?

A) Purulent drainage

B) Red, granulation tissue

C) Foul odor

D) Increased wound size



Answer: B) Red, granulation tissue



Explanation: Red, moist granulation tissue indicates healing. Purulent drainage, foul odor, and increased
wound size indicate infection or deterioration.

,5. A patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube to continuous suction complains of nausea and abdominal
distention. What is the priority nursing action?

A) Administer an antiemetic

B) Irrigate the NG tube

C) Check the NG tube for proper placement

D) Increase the suction pressure



Answer: C) Check the NG tube for proper placement



Explanation: Nausea and abdominal distention in a patient with an NG tube may indicate tube
displacement or obstruction. The priority is to verify proper tube placement before any other
intervention.




6. A nurse is assessing a patient's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The
patient opens eyes to pain, makes incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws from pain. What is the
patient's GCS score?

A) 6

B) 7

C) 8

D) 9



Answer: C) 8



Explanation: Eye opening to pain = 2, verbal response (incomprehensible sounds) = 2, motor response
(withdraws to pain) = 4. Total GCS = 2 + 2 + 4 = 8.

, 7. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which technique should be used?

A) Clean technique

B) Sterile technique

C) Surgical aseptic technique

D) Medical aseptic technique



Answer: B) Sterile technique



Explanation: Urinary catheter insertion requires sterile technique to prevent introduction of
microorganisms into the urinary tract and subsequent infection.




8. A patient is receiving blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after the transfusion starts, the patient
develops chills, fever, and flank pain. What is the priority nursing action?

A) Slow the transfusion rate

B) Administer acetaminophen

C) Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider

D) Continue the transfusion and monitor vital signs



Answer: C) Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider



Explanation: Chills, fever, and flank pain are signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the healthcare provider notified.

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