HESI Maternity Exam:
Comprehensive Topic Test |||questions
and answers with rationales/graded
A+/2026 update/100% correct
/instant download
Instructions: Choose the best answer. Correct answers are bolded and
highlighted. Rationales are provided for each question.
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
1. A client at 10 weeks gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which
recommendation should the nurse prioritize?
• A. Increase fluid intake with meals
• B. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
• C. Lie down immediately after eating
• D. Take prenatal vitamins on an empty stomach
Rationale: Dry crackers before rising help stabilize blood glucose and reduce
morning sickness. Fluids should be taken between meals, not with meals. Prenatal
vitamins may worsen nausea.
2. A nurse is calculating estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s rule.
The client’s last menstrual period (LMP) was May 10, 2025. What is the
EDD?
• A. February 17, 2026
• B. February 10, 2026
, • C. March 3, 2026
• D. April 17, 2026
Rationale: Naegele’s rule: LMP (May 10) – subtract 3 months (February 10) + add
7 days = February 17, 2026.
3. A client at 12 weeks asks when she will likely feel fetal movement. Which
response is most accurate?
• A. 10–12 weeks
• B. 13–15 weeks
• C. 18–20 weeks
• D. 24–26 weeks
Rationale: Primigravidas feel quickening at 18–20 weeks; multigravidas may feel
earlier (16–18 weeks).
4. A nurse reviews a prenatal lab: rubella titer = 0.8 IU/mL (low). What is the
priority action?
• A. Administer rubella vaccine now
• B. Administer rubella vaccine postpartum
• C. No action needed
• D. Repeat titer in 3rd trimester
Rationale: Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy. Postpartum
vaccination is safe and recommended.
5. A client at 24 weeks has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 155 mg/dL.
What is the next step?
• A. Diagnose gestational diabetes
• B. Order a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test
• C. Start insulin therapy
• D. Repeat 1-hour test tomorrow
Rationale: 1-hour GCT >140 mg/dL requires confirmatory 3-hour OGTT.
Diagnosis requires two abnormal values on OGTT.
, 6. A nurse assesses a pregnant client for supine hypotensive syndrome. Which
intervention is best?
• A. Raise legs above heart level
• B. Turn client to left lateral position
• C. Place in Trendelenburg position
• D. Administer IV fluids
Rationale: Left lateral position relieves vena cava compression, improving cardiac
output and BP.
7. A client with blood type O negative, Rh negative, has an antibody screen
negative at 28 weeks. What should the nurse administer?
• A. No treatment needed
• B. Rh immunoglobulin now and at delivery
• C. Rh immunoglobulin at 28 weeks and within 72 hours post-delivery
• D. Rh immunoglobulin only after delivery
Rationale: RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks to prevent sensitization and again
postpartum if baby is Rh positive.
8. A client at 16 weeks reports “light spotting after intercourse.” Which
instruction is most appropriate?
• A. Go to emergency room immediately
• B. Avoid intercourse until cleared by provider
• C. Increase physical activity
• D. Take aspirin daily
Rationale: Postcoital spotting is common due to friable cervix; but intercourse
should be avoided temporarily until evaluation rules out placenta previa or cervical
issues.
9. A nurse is teaching about folic acid. Which statement indicates
understanding?
• A. “I need 400-800 mcg daily to prevent neural tube defects.”
Comprehensive Topic Test |||questions
and answers with rationales/graded
A+/2026 update/100% correct
/instant download
Instructions: Choose the best answer. Correct answers are bolded and
highlighted. Rationales are provided for each question.
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
1. A client at 10 weeks gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which
recommendation should the nurse prioritize?
• A. Increase fluid intake with meals
• B. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
• C. Lie down immediately after eating
• D. Take prenatal vitamins on an empty stomach
Rationale: Dry crackers before rising help stabilize blood glucose and reduce
morning sickness. Fluids should be taken between meals, not with meals. Prenatal
vitamins may worsen nausea.
2. A nurse is calculating estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s rule.
The client’s last menstrual period (LMP) was May 10, 2025. What is the
EDD?
• A. February 17, 2026
• B. February 10, 2026
, • C. March 3, 2026
• D. April 17, 2026
Rationale: Naegele’s rule: LMP (May 10) – subtract 3 months (February 10) + add
7 days = February 17, 2026.
3. A client at 12 weeks asks when she will likely feel fetal movement. Which
response is most accurate?
• A. 10–12 weeks
• B. 13–15 weeks
• C. 18–20 weeks
• D. 24–26 weeks
Rationale: Primigravidas feel quickening at 18–20 weeks; multigravidas may feel
earlier (16–18 weeks).
4. A nurse reviews a prenatal lab: rubella titer = 0.8 IU/mL (low). What is the
priority action?
• A. Administer rubella vaccine now
• B. Administer rubella vaccine postpartum
• C. No action needed
• D. Repeat titer in 3rd trimester
Rationale: Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy. Postpartum
vaccination is safe and recommended.
5. A client at 24 weeks has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 155 mg/dL.
What is the next step?
• A. Diagnose gestational diabetes
• B. Order a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test
• C. Start insulin therapy
• D. Repeat 1-hour test tomorrow
Rationale: 1-hour GCT >140 mg/dL requires confirmatory 3-hour OGTT.
Diagnosis requires two abnormal values on OGTT.
, 6. A nurse assesses a pregnant client for supine hypotensive syndrome. Which
intervention is best?
• A. Raise legs above heart level
• B. Turn client to left lateral position
• C. Place in Trendelenburg position
• D. Administer IV fluids
Rationale: Left lateral position relieves vena cava compression, improving cardiac
output and BP.
7. A client with blood type O negative, Rh negative, has an antibody screen
negative at 28 weeks. What should the nurse administer?
• A. No treatment needed
• B. Rh immunoglobulin now and at delivery
• C. Rh immunoglobulin at 28 weeks and within 72 hours post-delivery
• D. Rh immunoglobulin only after delivery
Rationale: RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks to prevent sensitization and again
postpartum if baby is Rh positive.
8. A client at 16 weeks reports “light spotting after intercourse.” Which
instruction is most appropriate?
• A. Go to emergency room immediately
• B. Avoid intercourse until cleared by provider
• C. Increase physical activity
• D. Take aspirin daily
Rationale: Postcoital spotting is common due to friable cervix; but intercourse
should be avoided temporarily until evaluation rules out placenta previa or cervical
issues.
9. A nurse is teaching about folic acid. Which statement indicates
understanding?
• A. “I need 400-800 mcg daily to prevent neural tube defects.”
