2026/2027 | Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | Pass Guaranteed – A+
Graded
SECTION 1: Prioritization, Delegation & Scope of Practice (Questions
1–9)
Q1: The nurse is admitting a new client to the medical-surgical unit. Which task should
the RN perform rather than delegate to a UAP?
A. Obtaining vital signs on a stable client
B. Measuring intake and output from a closed-wound drainage system
C. Collecting the initial patient history and admission assessment [CORRECT]
D. Assisting a stable client with ambulation to the bathroom
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because initial patient history collection is an admission assessment
requiring critical analysis and synthesis of data for nursing diagnosis and care planning,
which is within the RN scope of practice and cannot be delegated to a UAP.
Q2: The charge nurse is reviewing assignments for the shift. Which task is inappropriate
to delegate to a UAP?
A. Documenting output from a closed-wound drainage system
B. Feeding a client with dysphagia following a recent stroke [CORRECT]
C. Obtaining vital signs on a client receiving a blood transfusion
D. Assisting a stable client with ambulation in the hallway
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Correct because feeding a client with dysphagia poses a high risk of
aspiration and requires skilled assessment of swallowing safety, which is beyond UAP
scope and must be performed by an RN or trained LPN.
Q3: A client is 2 hours post-paracentesis and requests assistance to the bathroom for
the first time. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Delegate the task to a UAP with instructions to call if the client feels dizzy
B. Ask the UAP to bring a bedside commode instead
C. Perform the task personally to assess tolerance and ensure safety [CORRECT]
D. Instruct the client to wait until the next shift when more staff is available
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the RN should perform this task to assess the client's
tolerance to the activity following paracentesis and ensure safety, as fluid shifts and
hypotension are potential complications.
Q4: A client with atrial fibrillation asks the nurse about the greatest risk associated with
their condition. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "The greatest risk is developing heart failure from the irregular rhythm."
B. "The greatest risk is clot formation leading to stroke." [CORRECT]
C. "The greatest risk is sudden cardiac arrest from ventricular fibrillation."
D. "The greatest risk is developing pulmonary embolism from leg clots."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because in atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting
effectively, causing blood to pool; stagnant blood can form clots that may embolize to
the brain, causing stroke.
Q5: The nurse is prioritizing care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess
first?
A. A client 2 days post-op appendectomy requesting pain medication
B. A client with COPD whose oxygen saturation is 88% on room air [CORRECT]
C. A client with a new colostomy who needs discharge teaching
D. A client with stable atrial fibrillation awaiting routine lab results
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Correct because the ABCs framework indicates that a client with an oxygen
saturation of 88% has compromised breathing and requires immediate assessment and
intervention to prevent hypoxemia and respiratory failure.
Q6: Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a UAP?
A. Administering oral medications to a client with dysphagia
B. Obtaining vital signs on a client receiving a blood transfusion [CORRECT]
C. Performing a sterile dressing change on a postoperative wound
D. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic client about insulin administration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because obtaining vital signs on a client receiving a blood transfusion
is within UAP scope, though the RN remains responsible for interpreting results and
monitoring for transfusion reactions.
Q7: A client with neutropenia and a fever of 101°F is admitted to the oncology unit. What
is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer acetaminophen and reassess in 2 hours
B. Place the client in protective isolation and notify the provider immediately [CORRECT]
C. Obtain blood cultures after the fever resolves
D. Encourage oral fluids and monitor temperature every 4 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a client with neutropenia and fever is at high risk for
life-threatening infection; protective isolation and immediate provider notification are
priority interventions per NUR 283 Comp 2 content on immunocompromised clients.
Q8: The nurse is caring for four clients on a busy medical-surgical unit. Which client
should be seen first based on Maslow's hierarchy and the ABCs framework?
A. A client requesting a sleeping pill for insomnia
B. A client with a new onset of confusion and lethargy [CORRECT]
C. A client who needs assistance with ADLs before family visitation
D. A client requesting a diet tray modification
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because new onset confusion and lethargy may indicate neurologic
compromise, hypoxia, or metabolic derangement; the ABCs framework and Maslow's
hierarchy prioritize physiologic stability and safety over comfort needs.