NUR 2571 / NUR2571 Final Exam:
Professional Nursing II PN2 Final Exam
Review | Latest 2026 Questions with Answers
& Rationales
QUESTION 1
A client who has completely eliminated fats from the diet should be assessed
for a deficiency of:
A. Bile
B. Minerals
C. Salt
D. Vitamins A, D, E, and K
Answer: D. Vitamins A, D, E, and K
Rationale: Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble vitamins that require
dietary fat for absorption. When fats are completely eliminated from the diet,
the client is at risk for deficiencies of these vitamins. Bile is produced by the
liver regardless of fat intake. Minerals and salt are water-soluble and not
dependent on fat for absorption.
QUESTION 2
The nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with Graves' disease. Which
nursing intervention would be most appropriate?
A. Restrict all fluids
B. Provide frequent, small meals
C. Encourage high-fiber foods
D. Restrict carbohydrates
Answer: B. Provide frequent, small meals
,Rationale: Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism) causes increased metabolism,
leading to excessive hunger, weight loss, and nutritional depletion. Frequent,
small meals help meet increased caloric needs and prevent hypoglycemia.
Fluids should be encouraged to prevent dehydration. High-fiber foods may
worsen diarrhea, which is common in hyperthyroidism.
QUESTION 3
A pregnant client is receiving treatment for hyperthyroidism. Which
medication would the nurse expect to see prescribed?
A. Methimazole (Tapazole)
B. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
C. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
D. Radioactive iodine
Answer: B. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is the preferred antithyroid medication
during pregnancy because it has a lower risk of fetal complications compared
to methimazole. PTU crosses the placenta less readily and is associated with
fewer teratogenic effects. Radioactive iodine is contraindicated during
pregnancy. Levothyroxine is used for hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism.
QUESTION 4
Which statement made by an older adult client alerts the nurse that further
assessment is needed specifically for fluid and electrolyte imbalances?
A. "I have trouble remembering to take my medications"
B. "I don't drink liquids after 5 PM so I don't have to get up at night"
C. "I eat smaller meals now than I used to"
D. "I use a cane to help me walk"
Answer: B. "I don't drink liquids after 5 PM so I don't have to get up at
night"
Rationale: Older adults often restrict fluids to prevent nocturia, placing them
at risk for dehydration and fluid-electrolyte imbalances. This statement
,indicates the client may not be consuming adequate fluids, requiring further
assessment of fluid intake, output, and signs of dehydration. The other
statements relate to medication adherence, nutritional changes, and mobility,
which are important but do not directly indicate fluid-electrolyte concerns.
QUESTION 5
A client has hypokalemia. Which question by the nurse obtains the most
information about a possible cause?
A. "Have you been experiencing any diarrhea?"
B. "Do you use diuretics or laxatives?"
C. "How much water do you drink each day?"
D. "Have you been eating salty foods?"
Answer: B. "Do you use diuretics or laxatives?"
Rationale: Diuretics and laxatives are common causes of potassium loss
leading to hypokalemia. Diuretics increase renal potassium excretion, while
laxatives increase gastrointestinal potassium loss. This question directly
addresses the most common pharmacological causes. Diarrhea can also cause
potassium loss, but diuretics and laxatives are more commonly associated
with hypokalemia in clinical practice.
QUESTION 6
A client has metabolic alkalosis. Which laboratory results is the nurse most
likely to assess as consistent with this condition?
A. Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperchloremia
B. Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia
C. Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperchloremia
D. Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia
Answer: B. Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia
Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an elevated serum
bicarbonate and increased pH. It is commonly associated with hypokalemia
(due to potassium shifts), hypochloremia (chloride loss), and hyponatremia
, (fluid shifts). The loss of hydrogen ions and chloride ions leads to these
electrolyte imbalances. Hypokalemia is a key finding because potassium
moves into cells in exchange for hydrogen ions to compensate for alkalosis.
QUESTION 7
A client presented to the ED with an injury to the right ankle after a fall. On
assessment, the nurse notes that it is red and inflamed but the skin is intact.
The nurse adds interventions to the care plan that address which factor?
A. Risk for infection
B. Inflammation and pain
C. Impaired mobility
D. Risk for skin breakdown
Answer: B. Inflammation and pain
Rationale: The client presents with classic signs of inflammation: redness
(rubor), heat (calor), and swelling (tumor) due to a soft tissue injury. The skin
is intact, so risk for infection and skin breakdown are not immediate concerns.
The priority interventions should address inflammation (RICE: rest, ice,
compression, elevation) and pain management. While mobility may be
affected, inflammation and pain are the immediate physiological responses
requiring intervention.
QUESTION 8
The nurse is working with a client who will be taking 20 mg of prednisone
daily for rheumatoid arthritis. Which precaution does the nurse give the client
about taking this medication?
A. "Take this medication at bedtime because it will make you sleepy"
B. "Take calcium and vitamin D supplements daily"
C. "Eat a high-fiber diet with lots of lean meats"
D. "Wash your face twice daily with antibacterial soap"
Answer: B. "Take calcium and vitamin D supplements daily"
Professional Nursing II PN2 Final Exam
Review | Latest 2026 Questions with Answers
& Rationales
QUESTION 1
A client who has completely eliminated fats from the diet should be assessed
for a deficiency of:
A. Bile
B. Minerals
C. Salt
D. Vitamins A, D, E, and K
Answer: D. Vitamins A, D, E, and K
Rationale: Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble vitamins that require
dietary fat for absorption. When fats are completely eliminated from the diet,
the client is at risk for deficiencies of these vitamins. Bile is produced by the
liver regardless of fat intake. Minerals and salt are water-soluble and not
dependent on fat for absorption.
QUESTION 2
The nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with Graves' disease. Which
nursing intervention would be most appropriate?
A. Restrict all fluids
B. Provide frequent, small meals
C. Encourage high-fiber foods
D. Restrict carbohydrates
Answer: B. Provide frequent, small meals
,Rationale: Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism) causes increased metabolism,
leading to excessive hunger, weight loss, and nutritional depletion. Frequent,
small meals help meet increased caloric needs and prevent hypoglycemia.
Fluids should be encouraged to prevent dehydration. High-fiber foods may
worsen diarrhea, which is common in hyperthyroidism.
QUESTION 3
A pregnant client is receiving treatment for hyperthyroidism. Which
medication would the nurse expect to see prescribed?
A. Methimazole (Tapazole)
B. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
C. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
D. Radioactive iodine
Answer: B. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is the preferred antithyroid medication
during pregnancy because it has a lower risk of fetal complications compared
to methimazole. PTU crosses the placenta less readily and is associated with
fewer teratogenic effects. Radioactive iodine is contraindicated during
pregnancy. Levothyroxine is used for hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism.
QUESTION 4
Which statement made by an older adult client alerts the nurse that further
assessment is needed specifically for fluid and electrolyte imbalances?
A. "I have trouble remembering to take my medications"
B. "I don't drink liquids after 5 PM so I don't have to get up at night"
C. "I eat smaller meals now than I used to"
D. "I use a cane to help me walk"
Answer: B. "I don't drink liquids after 5 PM so I don't have to get up at
night"
Rationale: Older adults often restrict fluids to prevent nocturia, placing them
at risk for dehydration and fluid-electrolyte imbalances. This statement
,indicates the client may not be consuming adequate fluids, requiring further
assessment of fluid intake, output, and signs of dehydration. The other
statements relate to medication adherence, nutritional changes, and mobility,
which are important but do not directly indicate fluid-electrolyte concerns.
QUESTION 5
A client has hypokalemia. Which question by the nurse obtains the most
information about a possible cause?
A. "Have you been experiencing any diarrhea?"
B. "Do you use diuretics or laxatives?"
C. "How much water do you drink each day?"
D. "Have you been eating salty foods?"
Answer: B. "Do you use diuretics or laxatives?"
Rationale: Diuretics and laxatives are common causes of potassium loss
leading to hypokalemia. Diuretics increase renal potassium excretion, while
laxatives increase gastrointestinal potassium loss. This question directly
addresses the most common pharmacological causes. Diarrhea can also cause
potassium loss, but diuretics and laxatives are more commonly associated
with hypokalemia in clinical practice.
QUESTION 6
A client has metabolic alkalosis. Which laboratory results is the nurse most
likely to assess as consistent with this condition?
A. Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperchloremia
B. Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia
C. Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperchloremia
D. Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia
Answer: B. Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia
Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an elevated serum
bicarbonate and increased pH. It is commonly associated with hypokalemia
(due to potassium shifts), hypochloremia (chloride loss), and hyponatremia
, (fluid shifts). The loss of hydrogen ions and chloride ions leads to these
electrolyte imbalances. Hypokalemia is a key finding because potassium
moves into cells in exchange for hydrogen ions to compensate for alkalosis.
QUESTION 7
A client presented to the ED with an injury to the right ankle after a fall. On
assessment, the nurse notes that it is red and inflamed but the skin is intact.
The nurse adds interventions to the care plan that address which factor?
A. Risk for infection
B. Inflammation and pain
C. Impaired mobility
D. Risk for skin breakdown
Answer: B. Inflammation and pain
Rationale: The client presents with classic signs of inflammation: redness
(rubor), heat (calor), and swelling (tumor) due to a soft tissue injury. The skin
is intact, so risk for infection and skin breakdown are not immediate concerns.
The priority interventions should address inflammation (RICE: rest, ice,
compression, elevation) and pain management. While mobility may be
affected, inflammation and pain are the immediate physiological responses
requiring intervention.
QUESTION 8
The nurse is working with a client who will be taking 20 mg of prednisone
daily for rheumatoid arthritis. Which precaution does the nurse give the client
about taking this medication?
A. "Take this medication at bedtime because it will make you sleepy"
B. "Take calcium and vitamin D supplements daily"
C. "Eat a high-fiber diet with lots of lean meats"
D. "Wash your face twice daily with antibacterial soap"
Answer: B. "Take calcium and vitamin D supplements daily"
