NR 566 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE | COMPLETE QUESTIONS, ANSWERS & CLINICAL PHAR… EXAM
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
NR 566 Advanced Pharmacology Final
Exam Study Guide | Complete Questions,
Answers & Clinical Pharmacology Review
| Chamberlain University | 2026/2027
Verified Answers Exam Ready With Rationales
100 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This study guide provides 100 complete advanced pharmacology exam questions with their correct answers
and detailed clinical rationales. Designed for comprehensive review, it covers key drug classes and
therapeutic applications relevant to advanced practice nursing. Students can effectively utilize this
resource for deep understanding, exam preparation, and reinforcement of clinical decision-making skills.
CONTENTS
01 Infectious Diseases Q1–Q11
02 Genitourinary & Reproductive Health Q12–Q31
03 Neurology & Seizures Q32–Q48
04 Migraine Management Q49–Q57
05 Alzheimer's Disease Q58–Q67
06 Psychiatric Disorders Q68–Q100
E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 100
A 22-year-old patient presents to the clinic reporting dysuria and a purulent urethral discharge for 3 days. A nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) confirms
*Chlamydia trachomatis*. The on-call nurse practitioner must prescribe a single oral dose medication to treat this infection.
A) Doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 7 days
B) Azithromycin 1000mg orally once
Page 1
,C) Ciprofloxacin 500mg orally twice daily for 7 days
D) Metronidazole 500mg orally twice daily for 7 days
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Azithromycin 1000mg orally once
RATIONALE
Azithromycin 1000mg PO single dose is the recommended first-line therapy for uncomplicated *Chlamydia trachomatis* infection, offering improved adherence compared to
multi-day regimens. Doxycycline is a second-line option, while ciprofloxacin and metronidazole are not indicated for this specific diagnosis.
Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 100
A 24-year-old female presents to the clinic reporting dysuria and vaginal discharge for three days. A nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) confirms Chlamydia
trachomatis infection. The client has a history of penicillin allergy. Which medication prescription from the on-call resident represents the most appropriate first-
line therapy?
A) Azithromycin 1 gram PO x 1 dose
B) Cefixime 400 mg PO daily for 7 days
C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
D) Erythromycin 500 mg PO QID for 7 days
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
RATIONALE
Doxycycline is the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated Chlamydia infections when azithromycin is not preferred or for patients with penicillin allergies; it
targets the organism effectively over a 7-day course. Alternatives like azithromycin are 1-dose options, and cefixime or erythromycin are not standard first-line choices for this
diagnosis.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 100
The on-call resident is reviewing the results for a 22-year-old male presenting with dysuria and urethral discharge. Laboratory reports confirm a diagnosis of
uncomplicated gonorrhea. Based on current CDC guidelines, which single intramuscular injection is the recommended first-line therapy for this patient's
infection?
A) Gentamicin 240mg IM once
B) Cefixime 400mg PO once
C) Azithromycin 1g PO once
D) Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once
CORRECT ANSWER
D) Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once
RATIONALE
Ceftriaxone 500mg IM is the recommended intramuscular treatment of choice for uncomplicated gonorrhea according to CDC guidelines, due to its efficacy and resistance
patterns. Other options represent alternative or less effective treatments for this specific presentation.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 100
A 24-year-old male presents to the clinic reporting symptoms consistent with gonorrhea. The on-call provider has prescribed a single 500 mg intramuscular
injection of ceftriaxone. To effectively treat the infection and minimize the risk of reinfection or development of resistant strains, what additional medication
should be administered concurrently or prescribed for the patient's partner?
A) Azithromycin 1 gram orally
B) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally
Page 2
,C) Doxycycline 100 mg orally BID for 7 days
D) Metronidazole 500 mg orally BID for 7 days
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Doxycycline 100 mg orally BID for 7 days
RATIONALE
Gonorrhea treatment guidelines recommend dual therapy to increase efficacy and reduce resistance; combining ceftriaxone with doxycycline targets *Chlamydia trachomatis*,
a common co-infection, and provides broader coverage.
Q5 QUESTION 5 OF 100
A 32-year-old patient presents to the community health clinic reporting a malodorous vaginal discharge and a fishy odor, with onset noted approximately 3 days
ago. She denies dysuria or vaginal itching. A wet mount reveals clue cells. The on-call nurse practitioner is reviewing the treatment options.
A) Clindamycin 300mg PO BID for 10 days
B) Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
C) Fluconazole 150mg PO x 1 dose
D) Doxycycline 100mg PO BID for 7 days
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
RATIONALE
Bacterial vaginosis is treated with a course of metronidazole to eradicate the overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria, and this specific dosing regimen is standard for non-pregnant
patients. Fluconazole is an antifungal, and doxycycline is an antibiotic for other infections.
Q6 QUESTION 6 OF 100
A 28-year-old G2P1 patient at 30 weeks gestation presents with a malodorous vaginal discharge, reporting mild itching. A wet mount reveals clue cells. The on-
call obstetrics nurse is preparing to administer prescribed therapy.
A) Administer vaginal clindamycin 2% cream once daily for 7 days.
B) Prepare for oral metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days.
C) Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing.
D) Initiate intravenous ampicillin 1 gram every 6 hours.
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Prepare for oral metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days.
RATIONALE
Oral metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days is a recommended first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis in pregnant patients, especially when there's a risk of ascending
infection. Vaginal clindamycin is an alternative, but oral metronidazole is often preferred.
Q7 QUESTION 7 OF 100
A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with a new onset of painful genital lesions that appeared 48 hours ago. He reports a history of recurrent outbreaks but
states this episode feels more severe. The on-call resident orders a viral culture, which returns positive for Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) type 2. The resident
prescribes Acyclovir 400 mg orally three times daily for 10 days. What is the MOST appropriate next step for the nurse to take regarding this patient's treatment
plan?
A) Administer the first dose of Acyclovir and educate the patient on symptom management.
B) Contact the resident to question the prescribed dosage, as Acyclovir is typically dosed higher for initial outbreaks.
Page 3
, C) Confirm the prescription with the resident and reinforce education on the medication's purpose and duration.
D) Advise the patient to start over-the-counter (OTC) topical treatments until the next clinic appointment.
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Confirm the prescription with the resident and reinforce education on the medication's purpose and duration.
RATIONALE
Acyclovir 400 mg TID for 7-10 days is a standard first-line therapy for episodic treatment of genital herpes, so the prescription is appropriate and requires confirmation and
patient education.
Q8 QUESTION 8 OF 100
A 68-year-old male presents to the clinic with a 5-day history of painful, vesicular lesions on his perineum, diagnosed as a primary outbreak of genital herpes
simplex virus (HSV). He has a history of hypertension managed with lisinopril and mild osteoarthritis. The on-call resident prescribed valacyclovir 1 gram PO TID
for 7 days based on the initial assessment. Upon review of the patient's medication list, the nurse notes his GFR is 45 mL/min/1.73m². Which adjustment to the
prescribed therapy does the nurse anticipate will be necessary?
A) Continue valacyclovir as prescribed, as renal function is adequate.
B) Administer acyclovir 800 mg PO BID for 10 days.
C) Decrease the frequency of valacyclovir administration.
D) Prescribe famciclovir 250 mg PO TID for 7 days.
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Decrease the frequency of valacyclovir administration.
RATIONALE
Valacyclovir is renally excreted, and reduced GFR necessitates dose adjustment or frequency reduction to prevent accumulation and toxicity. Acyclovir 800mg BID is a common
dosing regimen for suppressive therapy, not necessarily for a primary outbreak, and the duration is also altered.
Q9 QUESTION 9 OF 100
A 28-year-old patient presents to the clinic reporting vaginal itching and a frothy, yellow-green discharge. A wet mount confirms the presence of motile
trichomonads. The healthcare provider prescribes a treatment regimen. Which medication order should the nurse anticipate to effectively treat this infection?
A) Clindamycin 300mg PO BID for 5 days
B) Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
C) Fluconazole 150mg PO single dose
D) Azithromycin 1g PO single dose
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
RATIONALE
Metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days is the recommended first-line therapy for symptomatic trichomoniasis in women, targeting the protozoan parasite effectively.
Clindamycin targets bacterial vaginosis, fluconazole targets yeast infections, and azithromycin is an antibiotic not typically used for this specific parasitic infection.
Q10 QUESTION 10 OF 100
A 34-year-old male patient presents to the clinic reporting dysuria and penile discharge that began 48 hours ago. He states he had unprotected intercourse with a
new partner 3 days prior to symptom onset. The clinician suspects trichomoniasis based on the symptoms and recent sexual history. Which medication is
indicated for this patient's treatment?
A) Azithromycin 1 gram orally single dose
B) Metronidazole 2 grams orally single dose
Page 4
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
NR 566 Advanced Pharmacology Final
Exam Study Guide | Complete Questions,
Answers & Clinical Pharmacology Review
| Chamberlain University | 2026/2027
Verified Answers Exam Ready With Rationales
100 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This study guide provides 100 complete advanced pharmacology exam questions with their correct answers
and detailed clinical rationales. Designed for comprehensive review, it covers key drug classes and
therapeutic applications relevant to advanced practice nursing. Students can effectively utilize this
resource for deep understanding, exam preparation, and reinforcement of clinical decision-making skills.
CONTENTS
01 Infectious Diseases Q1–Q11
02 Genitourinary & Reproductive Health Q12–Q31
03 Neurology & Seizures Q32–Q48
04 Migraine Management Q49–Q57
05 Alzheimer's Disease Q58–Q67
06 Psychiatric Disorders Q68–Q100
E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 100
A 22-year-old patient presents to the clinic reporting dysuria and a purulent urethral discharge for 3 days. A nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) confirms
*Chlamydia trachomatis*. The on-call nurse practitioner must prescribe a single oral dose medication to treat this infection.
A) Doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 7 days
B) Azithromycin 1000mg orally once
Page 1
,C) Ciprofloxacin 500mg orally twice daily for 7 days
D) Metronidazole 500mg orally twice daily for 7 days
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Azithromycin 1000mg orally once
RATIONALE
Azithromycin 1000mg PO single dose is the recommended first-line therapy for uncomplicated *Chlamydia trachomatis* infection, offering improved adherence compared to
multi-day regimens. Doxycycline is a second-line option, while ciprofloxacin and metronidazole are not indicated for this specific diagnosis.
Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 100
A 24-year-old female presents to the clinic reporting dysuria and vaginal discharge for three days. A nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) confirms Chlamydia
trachomatis infection. The client has a history of penicillin allergy. Which medication prescription from the on-call resident represents the most appropriate first-
line therapy?
A) Azithromycin 1 gram PO x 1 dose
B) Cefixime 400 mg PO daily for 7 days
C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
D) Erythromycin 500 mg PO QID for 7 days
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
RATIONALE
Doxycycline is the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated Chlamydia infections when azithromycin is not preferred or for patients with penicillin allergies; it
targets the organism effectively over a 7-day course. Alternatives like azithromycin are 1-dose options, and cefixime or erythromycin are not standard first-line choices for this
diagnosis.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 100
The on-call resident is reviewing the results for a 22-year-old male presenting with dysuria and urethral discharge. Laboratory reports confirm a diagnosis of
uncomplicated gonorrhea. Based on current CDC guidelines, which single intramuscular injection is the recommended first-line therapy for this patient's
infection?
A) Gentamicin 240mg IM once
B) Cefixime 400mg PO once
C) Azithromycin 1g PO once
D) Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once
CORRECT ANSWER
D) Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once
RATIONALE
Ceftriaxone 500mg IM is the recommended intramuscular treatment of choice for uncomplicated gonorrhea according to CDC guidelines, due to its efficacy and resistance
patterns. Other options represent alternative or less effective treatments for this specific presentation.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 100
A 24-year-old male presents to the clinic reporting symptoms consistent with gonorrhea. The on-call provider has prescribed a single 500 mg intramuscular
injection of ceftriaxone. To effectively treat the infection and minimize the risk of reinfection or development of resistant strains, what additional medication
should be administered concurrently or prescribed for the patient's partner?
A) Azithromycin 1 gram orally
B) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally
Page 2
,C) Doxycycline 100 mg orally BID for 7 days
D) Metronidazole 500 mg orally BID for 7 days
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Doxycycline 100 mg orally BID for 7 days
RATIONALE
Gonorrhea treatment guidelines recommend dual therapy to increase efficacy and reduce resistance; combining ceftriaxone with doxycycline targets *Chlamydia trachomatis*,
a common co-infection, and provides broader coverage.
Q5 QUESTION 5 OF 100
A 32-year-old patient presents to the community health clinic reporting a malodorous vaginal discharge and a fishy odor, with onset noted approximately 3 days
ago. She denies dysuria or vaginal itching. A wet mount reveals clue cells. The on-call nurse practitioner is reviewing the treatment options.
A) Clindamycin 300mg PO BID for 10 days
B) Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
C) Fluconazole 150mg PO x 1 dose
D) Doxycycline 100mg PO BID for 7 days
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
RATIONALE
Bacterial vaginosis is treated with a course of metronidazole to eradicate the overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria, and this specific dosing regimen is standard for non-pregnant
patients. Fluconazole is an antifungal, and doxycycline is an antibiotic for other infections.
Q6 QUESTION 6 OF 100
A 28-year-old G2P1 patient at 30 weeks gestation presents with a malodorous vaginal discharge, reporting mild itching. A wet mount reveals clue cells. The on-
call obstetrics nurse is preparing to administer prescribed therapy.
A) Administer vaginal clindamycin 2% cream once daily for 7 days.
B) Prepare for oral metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days.
C) Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing.
D) Initiate intravenous ampicillin 1 gram every 6 hours.
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Prepare for oral metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days.
RATIONALE
Oral metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days is a recommended first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis in pregnant patients, especially when there's a risk of ascending
infection. Vaginal clindamycin is an alternative, but oral metronidazole is often preferred.
Q7 QUESTION 7 OF 100
A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with a new onset of painful genital lesions that appeared 48 hours ago. He reports a history of recurrent outbreaks but
states this episode feels more severe. The on-call resident orders a viral culture, which returns positive for Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) type 2. The resident
prescribes Acyclovir 400 mg orally three times daily for 10 days. What is the MOST appropriate next step for the nurse to take regarding this patient's treatment
plan?
A) Administer the first dose of Acyclovir and educate the patient on symptom management.
B) Contact the resident to question the prescribed dosage, as Acyclovir is typically dosed higher for initial outbreaks.
Page 3
, C) Confirm the prescription with the resident and reinforce education on the medication's purpose and duration.
D) Advise the patient to start over-the-counter (OTC) topical treatments until the next clinic appointment.
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Confirm the prescription with the resident and reinforce education on the medication's purpose and duration.
RATIONALE
Acyclovir 400 mg TID for 7-10 days is a standard first-line therapy for episodic treatment of genital herpes, so the prescription is appropriate and requires confirmation and
patient education.
Q8 QUESTION 8 OF 100
A 68-year-old male presents to the clinic with a 5-day history of painful, vesicular lesions on his perineum, diagnosed as a primary outbreak of genital herpes
simplex virus (HSV). He has a history of hypertension managed with lisinopril and mild osteoarthritis. The on-call resident prescribed valacyclovir 1 gram PO TID
for 7 days based on the initial assessment. Upon review of the patient's medication list, the nurse notes his GFR is 45 mL/min/1.73m². Which adjustment to the
prescribed therapy does the nurse anticipate will be necessary?
A) Continue valacyclovir as prescribed, as renal function is adequate.
B) Administer acyclovir 800 mg PO BID for 10 days.
C) Decrease the frequency of valacyclovir administration.
D) Prescribe famciclovir 250 mg PO TID for 7 days.
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Decrease the frequency of valacyclovir administration.
RATIONALE
Valacyclovir is renally excreted, and reduced GFR necessitates dose adjustment or frequency reduction to prevent accumulation and toxicity. Acyclovir 800mg BID is a common
dosing regimen for suppressive therapy, not necessarily for a primary outbreak, and the duration is also altered.
Q9 QUESTION 9 OF 100
A 28-year-old patient presents to the clinic reporting vaginal itching and a frothy, yellow-green discharge. A wet mount confirms the presence of motile
trichomonads. The healthcare provider prescribes a treatment regimen. Which medication order should the nurse anticipate to effectively treat this infection?
A) Clindamycin 300mg PO BID for 5 days
B) Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
C) Fluconazole 150mg PO single dose
D) Azithromycin 1g PO single dose
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
RATIONALE
Metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days is the recommended first-line therapy for symptomatic trichomoniasis in women, targeting the protozoan parasite effectively.
Clindamycin targets bacterial vaginosis, fluconazole targets yeast infections, and azithromycin is an antibiotic not typically used for this specific parasitic infection.
Q10 QUESTION 10 OF 100
A 34-year-old male patient presents to the clinic reporting dysuria and penile discharge that began 48 hours ago. He states he had unprotected intercourse with a
new partner 3 days prior to symptom onset. The clinician suspects trichomoniasis based on the symptoms and recent sexual history. Which medication is
indicated for this patient's treatment?
A) Azithromycin 1 gram orally single dose
B) Metronidazole 2 grams orally single dose
Page 4
