CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam
2026 – 200 + Realistic Practice Questions with
Detailed Answers & Rationales | Complete Study
Guide Covering All 5 Domains (General Security
Concepts, Threats & Vulnerabilities, Security
Architecture, Security Operations, Security
Program Management)
Introduction
Are you ready to conquer the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification exam in 2026? Whether you are an
aspiring cybersecurity professional looking to break into the industry or an experienced IT specialist seeking
to validate your foundational security skills, passing this exam is a critical milestone. However, with a
maximum of 90 questions to answer in just 90 minutes—covering everything from zero-trust architecture
and cloud security to incident response and risk management—you need more than just theory; you need
rigorous, hands-on practice.
DOMAIN 1: GENERAL SECURITY CONCEPTS (12%)
Q1. Which security control type is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) considered to be?
A. Deterrent
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Preventive
Answer: D. Preventive – An AUP is an administrative preventive control that proactively prevents
security incidents by informing users of prohibited activities.
,Q2. Which statement correctly differentiates between FTP, SFTP, and FTPS?
A. FTPS adds SSL/TLS; SFTP is based on SSH; FTP has no encryption
B. FTP adds SSL/TLS; SFTP is based on SSH; FTPS has no encryption
C. SFTP adds SSL/TLS; FTPS is based on SSH; FTP has no encryption
D. All three provide the same level of encryption
Answer: A – FTP transmits data in cleartext; FTPS adds TLS/SSL encryption; SFTP is an entirely different
protocol based on SSH.
Q3. Which of the following best describes the CIA triad?
A. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
B. Confidentiality, Identity, Authentication
C. Control, Integrity, Accessibility
D. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
Answer: D – The CIA triad consists of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability – the three core pillars of
information security.
Q4. What is non-repudiation in the context of information security?
A. The ability to deny access to unauthorized users
B. The assurance that someone cannot deny the validity of something
C. The process of encrypting all data transmissions
D. The practice of backing up data regularly
Answer: B – Non-repudiation ensures that a party cannot deny having performed a particular action,
often achieved through digital signatures and logging.
Q5. Which of the following is a characteristic of a zero-trust security model?
A. Trust all internal traffic by default
B. Require VPN for all remote access
C. Never trust, always verify
D. Use only perimeter-based security controls
Answer: C – Zero trust follows the principle of "never trust, always verify," requiring continuous
authentication and authorization for all access requests.
Q6. What is the primary purpose of hashing in cybersecurity?
,A. To encrypt data for confidentiality
B. To verify data integrity
C. To authenticate users
D. To compress data for storage
Answer: B – Hashing produces a fixed-size output (hash) from input data, used primarily to verify that
data has not been altered.
Q7. Which IAM concept involves confirming a user's identity?
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Accounting
D. Auditing
Answer: B – Authentication is the process of verifying a user's identity (e.g., through passwords,
biometrics, or tokens).
Q8. What does AAA stand for in security?
A. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting
B. Access, Audit, and Assessment
C. Authentication, Access, and Approval
D. Authorization, Auditing, and Assessment
Answer: A – AAA stands for Authentication (who you are), Authorization (what you can do), and
Accounting (what you did).
Q9. Which type of cryptography uses the same key for encryption and decryption?
A. Symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption
C. Hashing
D. Steganography
Answer: A – Symmetric encryption uses a single shared key for both encryption and decryption
operations.
Q10. What is a digital signature primarily used for?
A. Encrypting large files
B. Providing authentication and non-repudiation
, C. Compressing data
D. Creating backups
Answer: B – Digital signatures provide authentication of the sender and non-repudiation, ensuring the
signer cannot deny signing the document.
Q11. Which of the following is an example of a deterrent control?
A. Firewall
B. Antivirus software
C. Warning banner
D. Encryption
Answer: C – Warning banners discourage violations by informing users of monitoring and consequences;
they deter but don't physically stop actions.
Q12. What is PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)?
A. A type of malware
B. A framework for managing digital certificates and public-key encryption
C. A network protocol
D. A physical security measure
Answer: B – PKI is the framework of policies, procedures, and technologies for creating, managing,
distributing, and revoking digital certificates.
DOMAIN 2: THREATS, VULNERABILITIES & MITIGATIONS (22%)
Q13. Which vulnerability is exploited when an attacker overwrites a register with a malicious address?
A. VM escape
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Race condition
Answer: C – A buffer overflow occurs when data exceeds a buffer's storage capacity, overwriting
adjacent memory including registers.
Q14. An employee receives a text from an unknown number claiming to be the CEO asking the employee
to purchase gift cards. This is an example of:
A. Phishing
B. Smishing
2026 – 200 + Realistic Practice Questions with
Detailed Answers & Rationales | Complete Study
Guide Covering All 5 Domains (General Security
Concepts, Threats & Vulnerabilities, Security
Architecture, Security Operations, Security
Program Management)
Introduction
Are you ready to conquer the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification exam in 2026? Whether you are an
aspiring cybersecurity professional looking to break into the industry or an experienced IT specialist seeking
to validate your foundational security skills, passing this exam is a critical milestone. However, with a
maximum of 90 questions to answer in just 90 minutes—covering everything from zero-trust architecture
and cloud security to incident response and risk management—you need more than just theory; you need
rigorous, hands-on practice.
DOMAIN 1: GENERAL SECURITY CONCEPTS (12%)
Q1. Which security control type is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) considered to be?
A. Deterrent
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Preventive
Answer: D. Preventive – An AUP is an administrative preventive control that proactively prevents
security incidents by informing users of prohibited activities.
,Q2. Which statement correctly differentiates between FTP, SFTP, and FTPS?
A. FTPS adds SSL/TLS; SFTP is based on SSH; FTP has no encryption
B. FTP adds SSL/TLS; SFTP is based on SSH; FTPS has no encryption
C. SFTP adds SSL/TLS; FTPS is based on SSH; FTP has no encryption
D. All three provide the same level of encryption
Answer: A – FTP transmits data in cleartext; FTPS adds TLS/SSL encryption; SFTP is an entirely different
protocol based on SSH.
Q3. Which of the following best describes the CIA triad?
A. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
B. Confidentiality, Identity, Authentication
C. Control, Integrity, Accessibility
D. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
Answer: D – The CIA triad consists of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability – the three core pillars of
information security.
Q4. What is non-repudiation in the context of information security?
A. The ability to deny access to unauthorized users
B. The assurance that someone cannot deny the validity of something
C. The process of encrypting all data transmissions
D. The practice of backing up data regularly
Answer: B – Non-repudiation ensures that a party cannot deny having performed a particular action,
often achieved through digital signatures and logging.
Q5. Which of the following is a characteristic of a zero-trust security model?
A. Trust all internal traffic by default
B. Require VPN for all remote access
C. Never trust, always verify
D. Use only perimeter-based security controls
Answer: C – Zero trust follows the principle of "never trust, always verify," requiring continuous
authentication and authorization for all access requests.
Q6. What is the primary purpose of hashing in cybersecurity?
,A. To encrypt data for confidentiality
B. To verify data integrity
C. To authenticate users
D. To compress data for storage
Answer: B – Hashing produces a fixed-size output (hash) from input data, used primarily to verify that
data has not been altered.
Q7. Which IAM concept involves confirming a user's identity?
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Accounting
D. Auditing
Answer: B – Authentication is the process of verifying a user's identity (e.g., through passwords,
biometrics, or tokens).
Q8. What does AAA stand for in security?
A. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting
B. Access, Audit, and Assessment
C. Authentication, Access, and Approval
D. Authorization, Auditing, and Assessment
Answer: A – AAA stands for Authentication (who you are), Authorization (what you can do), and
Accounting (what you did).
Q9. Which type of cryptography uses the same key for encryption and decryption?
A. Symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption
C. Hashing
D. Steganography
Answer: A – Symmetric encryption uses a single shared key for both encryption and decryption
operations.
Q10. What is a digital signature primarily used for?
A. Encrypting large files
B. Providing authentication and non-repudiation
, C. Compressing data
D. Creating backups
Answer: B – Digital signatures provide authentication of the sender and non-repudiation, ensuring the
signer cannot deny signing the document.
Q11. Which of the following is an example of a deterrent control?
A. Firewall
B. Antivirus software
C. Warning banner
D. Encryption
Answer: C – Warning banners discourage violations by informing users of monitoring and consequences;
they deter but don't physically stop actions.
Q12. What is PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)?
A. A type of malware
B. A framework for managing digital certificates and public-key encryption
C. A network protocol
D. A physical security measure
Answer: B – PKI is the framework of policies, procedures, and technologies for creating, managing,
distributing, and revoking digital certificates.
DOMAIN 2: THREATS, VULNERABILITIES & MITIGATIONS (22%)
Q13. Which vulnerability is exploited when an attacker overwrites a register with a malicious address?
A. VM escape
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Race condition
Answer: C – A buffer overflow occurs when data exceeds a buffer's storage capacity, overwriting
adjacent memory including registers.
Q14. An employee receives a text from an unknown number claiming to be the CEO asking the employee
to purchase gift cards. This is an example of:
A. Phishing
B. Smishing
