NR 507 Week 8 Exam Central Nervous System
Disorders, Seizures, and Dermatologic
Disorders Questions and Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
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1. A patient experiences sudden onset of unilateral facial drooping,
inability to close one eye, and loss of taste on the anterior two-
thirds of the tongue. Which condition is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Bell's palsy
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Stroke
Rationale: Bell's palsy is an acute peripheral facial nerve (cranial nerve
VII) paralysis that typically presents with unilateral facial weakness
affecting both the upper and lower face. Patients may also experience
impaired lacrimation, hyperacusis, and loss of taste on the anterior
,two-thirds of the tongue. Unlike stroke, Bell's palsy affects the
forehead because it is a lower motor neuron lesion.
2. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is primarily associated with
Parkinson disease?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
Rationale: Parkinson disease results from degeneration of
dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, leading
to decreased dopamine in the basal ganglia. This imbalance causes
resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability.
3. Which hallmark pathologic finding is most characteristic of
Alzheimer disease?
A. Lewy bodies
B. Beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
C. Demyelination of axons
D. Glioblastoma
Rationale: Alzheimer disease is characterized by extracellular beta-
amyloid plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles composed of
,hyperphosphorylated tau protein. These abnormalities disrupt
neuronal communication and lead to progressive cognitive decline.
4. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing an ischemic
stroke?
A. A healthy 22-year-old athlete
B. A patient with eczema
C. A patient with atrial fibrillation and hypertension
D. A patient with seasonal allergies
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation significantly increases the risk of
thromboembolic stroke because blood stasis in the atria promotes clot
formation. Hypertension further accelerates vascular injury, making
these combined conditions major stroke risk factors.
5. A generalized tonic-clonic seizure is characterized by:
A. Brief episodes of staring only
B. Sudden muscle relaxation
C. Loss of consciousness with tonic stiffening followed by clonic jerking
D. Repetitive lip smacking without loss of awareness
Rationale: Generalized tonic-clonic seizures involve both cerebral
hemispheres and feature an initial tonic phase of muscle rigidity
, followed by a clonic phase of rhythmic jerking. Loss of consciousness is
typical.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance most commonly precipitates
seizures?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Rationale: Hyponatremia causes cerebral edema and neuronal
instability, lowering the seizure threshold. Rapid declines in serum
sodium are especially likely to provoke seizures.
7. Which manifestation is considered a positive symptom of multiple
sclerosis?
A. Fatigue
B. Weakness
C. Diplopia
D. Depression
Rationale: Positive symptoms represent abnormal neurologic activity
caused by demyelination, such as diplopia, paresthesias, spasticity,
Disorders, Seizures, and Dermatologic
Disorders Questions and Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf
1. A patient experiences sudden onset of unilateral facial drooping,
inability to close one eye, and loss of taste on the anterior two-
thirds of the tongue. Which condition is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Bell's palsy
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Stroke
Rationale: Bell's palsy is an acute peripheral facial nerve (cranial nerve
VII) paralysis that typically presents with unilateral facial weakness
affecting both the upper and lower face. Patients may also experience
impaired lacrimation, hyperacusis, and loss of taste on the anterior
,two-thirds of the tongue. Unlike stroke, Bell's palsy affects the
forehead because it is a lower motor neuron lesion.
2. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is primarily associated with
Parkinson disease?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
Rationale: Parkinson disease results from degeneration of
dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, leading
to decreased dopamine in the basal ganglia. This imbalance causes
resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability.
3. Which hallmark pathologic finding is most characteristic of
Alzheimer disease?
A. Lewy bodies
B. Beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
C. Demyelination of axons
D. Glioblastoma
Rationale: Alzheimer disease is characterized by extracellular beta-
amyloid plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles composed of
,hyperphosphorylated tau protein. These abnormalities disrupt
neuronal communication and lead to progressive cognitive decline.
4. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing an ischemic
stroke?
A. A healthy 22-year-old athlete
B. A patient with eczema
C. A patient with atrial fibrillation and hypertension
D. A patient with seasonal allergies
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation significantly increases the risk of
thromboembolic stroke because blood stasis in the atria promotes clot
formation. Hypertension further accelerates vascular injury, making
these combined conditions major stroke risk factors.
5. A generalized tonic-clonic seizure is characterized by:
A. Brief episodes of staring only
B. Sudden muscle relaxation
C. Loss of consciousness with tonic stiffening followed by clonic jerking
D. Repetitive lip smacking without loss of awareness
Rationale: Generalized tonic-clonic seizures involve both cerebral
hemispheres and feature an initial tonic phase of muscle rigidity
, followed by a clonic phase of rhythmic jerking. Loss of consciousness is
typical.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance most commonly precipitates
seizures?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Rationale: Hyponatremia causes cerebral edema and neuronal
instability, lowering the seizure threshold. Rapid declines in serum
sodium are especially likely to provoke seizures.
7. Which manifestation is considered a positive symptom of multiple
sclerosis?
A. Fatigue
B. Weakness
C. Diplopia
D. Depression
Rationale: Positive symptoms represent abnormal neurologic activity
caused by demyelination, such as diplopia, paresthesias, spasticity,
