PTA BOARD EXAM (PHYSICAL THERAPIST ASSISTANT) NEWEST
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK 2 VERSIONS (VERSION A & B)
WITH COMPLETE 400+ REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+ | PTA
BOARD EXAM PREP (LATEST UPDATE!!)
VERSION A - SECTION 1: MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM (Questions 1-50)
Q1. A PTA is treating a patient who had a medial meniscectomy 6 weeks ago. The
PTA
notes that the patient generates 140 ft/lbs of force using the uninvolved
quadriceps
at 60°/sec. Assuming a normal ratio of hamstrings to quadriceps strength, which
of
the following would be an acceptable hamstrings value at 60°/sec?
A) 64 ft/lbs
B) 84 ft/lbs
C) 114 ft/lbs
D) 116 ft/lbs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The normal hamstring-to-quadriceps ratio is approximately 60%. 140 ×
0.60
= 84 ft/lbs. This ratio is important for knee stability and preventing injury.
Q2. A patient with a sprain of the deltoid ligament of the ankle reports pain with
palpation and with ankle motion that stressed the ligament. The deltoid ligament
is located on which aspect of the ankle?
A) Lateral aspect
B) Medial aspect
C) Anterior aspect
D) Posterior aspect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The deltoid ligament is a strong, triangular ligament on the medial side
of the ankle. It is less commonly injured than the lateral ligaments.[reference:1]
1
,Q3. A PTA is treating a patient following a total knee arthroplasty. Which
intervention is MOST appropriate during the acute phase (first 2 weeks post-op)?
A) Progressive resistance training with high weights
B) Continuous passive motion (CPM) and gentle active-assisted ROM
C) Full weight-bearing ambulation without assistive device
D) High-impact plyometric exercises
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the acute phase post-TKA, gentle ROM exercises, CPM, and
progressive
weight-bearing with an assistive device are appropriate. High resistance and
high-impact activities are contraindicated.
Q4. A patient presents with a "foot drop" gait pattern. Which muscle is most
likely weak?
A) Gastrocnemius
B) Tibialis anterior
C) Peroneus longus
D) Soleus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Foot drop (steppage gait) results from weakness of the tibialis anterior,
which is responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle. It may be caused by common
peroneal nerve injury.
Q5. A patient has adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder). Which phase of the
condition is characterized by the MOST severe pain and progressive loss of
motion?
A) Freezing phase
B) Frozen phase
C) Thawing phase
D) Resolution phase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The freezing phase (stage 1) is characterized by the onset of pain and
2
,progressive loss of shoulder motion. The frozen phase has less pain but significant
stiffness.
Q6. A PTA is performing a manual muscle test on a patient's shoulder abductors.
The patient can complete full range of motion against gravity but cannot resist
moderate pressure. What grade should be assigned?
A) 2/5
B) 3/5
C) 4/5
D) 5/5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A muscle grade of 4/5 indicates the patient can move the joint through
full ROM against gravity and can resist some, but not full, resistance.
Q7. A patient with low back pain is prescribed a pelvic stabilization program.
Which muscle is a primary target for pelvic stabilization?
A) Rectus abdominis
B) Transversus abdominis
C) External oblique
D) Erector spinae
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The transversus abdominis is a deep core muscle that provides spinal
stability and is a primary target for pelvic stabilization programs.
Q8. A patient has a rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus tendon. Which
movement is MOST painful and weak?
A) Shoulder adduction
B) Shoulder abduction (empty can test)
C) Shoulder flexion
D) Shoulder extension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Supraspinatus weakness is best assessed with the empty can test
3
, (abduction in scapular plane with thumbs down), which stresses the
supraspinatus.
Q9. A PTA is assessing a patient's hamstring flexibility using the passive
straight leg raise (SLR) test. A normal SLR range is approximately:
A) 40-50 degrees
B) 60-70 degrees
C) 80-90 degrees
D) 100-110 degrees
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normal passive SLR range is approximately 80-90 degrees. Limited
range
may indicate hamstring tightness or sciatic nerve irritation.
Q10. A patient with osteoarthritis of the knee reports increased pain with
activity. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?
A) Complete bed rest
B) Low-impact aerobic exercise and strengthening
C) High-impact running
D) Avoid all physical activity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low-impact aerobic exercise (e.g., walking, swimming) and quadriceps
strengthening are key interventions for knee OA to maintain function and reduce
pain.
Q11. A PTA is treating a patient with a Colles' fracture. Which mechanism of
injury is most common?
A) Fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH)
B) Direct blow to the wrist
C) Hyperextension injury
D) Twisting injury
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Colles' fracture (distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement) is
4
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK 2 VERSIONS (VERSION A & B)
WITH COMPLETE 400+ REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+ | PTA
BOARD EXAM PREP (LATEST UPDATE!!)
VERSION A - SECTION 1: MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM (Questions 1-50)
Q1. A PTA is treating a patient who had a medial meniscectomy 6 weeks ago. The
PTA
notes that the patient generates 140 ft/lbs of force using the uninvolved
quadriceps
at 60°/sec. Assuming a normal ratio of hamstrings to quadriceps strength, which
of
the following would be an acceptable hamstrings value at 60°/sec?
A) 64 ft/lbs
B) 84 ft/lbs
C) 114 ft/lbs
D) 116 ft/lbs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The normal hamstring-to-quadriceps ratio is approximately 60%. 140 ×
0.60
= 84 ft/lbs. This ratio is important for knee stability and preventing injury.
Q2. A patient with a sprain of the deltoid ligament of the ankle reports pain with
palpation and with ankle motion that stressed the ligament. The deltoid ligament
is located on which aspect of the ankle?
A) Lateral aspect
B) Medial aspect
C) Anterior aspect
D) Posterior aspect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The deltoid ligament is a strong, triangular ligament on the medial side
of the ankle. It is less commonly injured than the lateral ligaments.[reference:1]
1
,Q3. A PTA is treating a patient following a total knee arthroplasty. Which
intervention is MOST appropriate during the acute phase (first 2 weeks post-op)?
A) Progressive resistance training with high weights
B) Continuous passive motion (CPM) and gentle active-assisted ROM
C) Full weight-bearing ambulation without assistive device
D) High-impact plyometric exercises
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the acute phase post-TKA, gentle ROM exercises, CPM, and
progressive
weight-bearing with an assistive device are appropriate. High resistance and
high-impact activities are contraindicated.
Q4. A patient presents with a "foot drop" gait pattern. Which muscle is most
likely weak?
A) Gastrocnemius
B) Tibialis anterior
C) Peroneus longus
D) Soleus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Foot drop (steppage gait) results from weakness of the tibialis anterior,
which is responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle. It may be caused by common
peroneal nerve injury.
Q5. A patient has adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder). Which phase of the
condition is characterized by the MOST severe pain and progressive loss of
motion?
A) Freezing phase
B) Frozen phase
C) Thawing phase
D) Resolution phase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The freezing phase (stage 1) is characterized by the onset of pain and
2
,progressive loss of shoulder motion. The frozen phase has less pain but significant
stiffness.
Q6. A PTA is performing a manual muscle test on a patient's shoulder abductors.
The patient can complete full range of motion against gravity but cannot resist
moderate pressure. What grade should be assigned?
A) 2/5
B) 3/5
C) 4/5
D) 5/5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A muscle grade of 4/5 indicates the patient can move the joint through
full ROM against gravity and can resist some, but not full, resistance.
Q7. A patient with low back pain is prescribed a pelvic stabilization program.
Which muscle is a primary target for pelvic stabilization?
A) Rectus abdominis
B) Transversus abdominis
C) External oblique
D) Erector spinae
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The transversus abdominis is a deep core muscle that provides spinal
stability and is a primary target for pelvic stabilization programs.
Q8. A patient has a rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus tendon. Which
movement is MOST painful and weak?
A) Shoulder adduction
B) Shoulder abduction (empty can test)
C) Shoulder flexion
D) Shoulder extension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Supraspinatus weakness is best assessed with the empty can test
3
, (abduction in scapular plane with thumbs down), which stresses the
supraspinatus.
Q9. A PTA is assessing a patient's hamstring flexibility using the passive
straight leg raise (SLR) test. A normal SLR range is approximately:
A) 40-50 degrees
B) 60-70 degrees
C) 80-90 degrees
D) 100-110 degrees
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normal passive SLR range is approximately 80-90 degrees. Limited
range
may indicate hamstring tightness or sciatic nerve irritation.
Q10. A patient with osteoarthritis of the knee reports increased pain with
activity. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?
A) Complete bed rest
B) Low-impact aerobic exercise and strengthening
C) High-impact running
D) Avoid all physical activity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low-impact aerobic exercise (e.g., walking, swimming) and quadriceps
strengthening are key interventions for knee OA to maintain function and reduce
pain.
Q11. A PTA is treating a patient with a Colles' fracture. Which mechanism of
injury is most common?
A) Fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH)
B) Direct blow to the wrist
C) Hyperextension injury
D) Twisting injury
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Colles' fracture (distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement) is
4
