NR566 Week 4 Midterm Exam Due 22nd November
2025 Complete Actual Exam Questions 1- 100 NR566
Advanced Pharmacology For Care Of The Family NR
566 Midterm and Finals Examplify Online Proctored
Exam Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
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, Week 1: Pharmacotherapy for Fungal and Viral Infections
(Questions 1–30)
1. A 32-year-old female presents with a white, cottage cheese-like vaginal
discharge and severe itching. She has no known drug allergies. What is the first-
line treatment?
• A) Oral fluconazole 150 mg single dose
• B) Topical miconazole cream for 7 days
• C) Oral metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days
• D) Topical nystatin powder
• Answer: A
• Rationale: Vulvovaginal candidiasis (most commonly Candida albicans) is
effectively treated with a single 150 mg oral dose of fluconazole. Topical azoles
are also appropriate, but single-dose oral therapy is often preferred for
compliance.
2. A 45-year-old man with a history of diabetes presents with thickened,
discolored toenails. The nail plate is separated from the nail bed. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
• A) Tinea pedis
• B) Onychomycosis
• C) Tinea cruris
• D) Candidiasis
• Answer: B
• Rationale: Onychomycosis is a fungal nail infection, typically caused by
dermatophytes. It is characterized by thickened, deformed, and discolored nails.
Tinea pedis affects the skin of the feet; tinea cruris affects the groin.
3. Which of the following antifungal agents is fungistatic and works by inhibiting
mitotic spindle formation?
2025 Complete Actual Exam Questions 1- 100 NR566
Advanced Pharmacology For Care Of The Family NR
566 Midterm and Finals Examplify Online Proctored
Exam Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
GradedA+
,
,
, Week 1: Pharmacotherapy for Fungal and Viral Infections
(Questions 1–30)
1. A 32-year-old female presents with a white, cottage cheese-like vaginal
discharge and severe itching. She has no known drug allergies. What is the first-
line treatment?
• A) Oral fluconazole 150 mg single dose
• B) Topical miconazole cream for 7 days
• C) Oral metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days
• D) Topical nystatin powder
• Answer: A
• Rationale: Vulvovaginal candidiasis (most commonly Candida albicans) is
effectively treated with a single 150 mg oral dose of fluconazole. Topical azoles
are also appropriate, but single-dose oral therapy is often preferred for
compliance.
2. A 45-year-old man with a history of diabetes presents with thickened,
discolored toenails. The nail plate is separated from the nail bed. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
• A) Tinea pedis
• B) Onychomycosis
• C) Tinea cruris
• D) Candidiasis
• Answer: B
• Rationale: Onychomycosis is a fungal nail infection, typically caused by
dermatophytes. It is characterized by thickened, deformed, and discolored nails.
Tinea pedis affects the skin of the feet; tinea cruris affects the groin.
3. Which of the following antifungal agents is fungistatic and works by inhibiting
mitotic spindle formation?
