NUR 230 MATERNAL EXAM 200 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST 2026
ALREADY GRADED A+
The NUR 230 Maternal-Newborn Nursing exam comprehensively assesses
nursing care for childbearing families across the perinatal continuum.
Content encompasses antepartum care including prenatal screening,
gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, and high-risk conditions. Intrapartum
topics cover labor stages, fetal monitoring, pain management, and
complications like placental abruption and prolapsed cord. Postpartum
content addresses hemorrhage, infection, uterine involution, lactation, and
maternal mental health. Newborn assessment includes Apgar scoring,
gestational age evaluation, reflexes, thermoregulation, and identification of
congenital anomalies. The exam emphasizes evidence-based interventions,
patient education, and priority nursing actions to promote positive maternal
and neonatal outcomes in diverse clinical settings.
1. A patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain and
vaginal bleeding. The nurse suspects which condition?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Normal Braxton Hicks contractions
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden, intense abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding is a classic
presentation of placental abruption, which is an obstetric emergency requiring
immediate intervention. Placenta previa typically presents with painless bleeding.
Braxton Hicks contractions are not associated with bleeding.
2. The primary risk of a post-term pregnancy (>42 weeks) is:
A. Oligohydramnios and fetal distress
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: A
,Rationale: Post-term pregnancies are at increased risk for oligohydramnios
(decreased amniotic fluid) and subsequent fetal distress due to cord compression
and placental insufficiency. Other complications include macrosomia and
meconium aspiration.
3. Which finding indicates uterine atony in the postpartum period?
A. Soft, boggy fundus with heavy bleeding
B. Firm fundus with minimal bleeding
C. Increased urinary output
D. Abdominal cramping without bleeding
Answer: A
Rationale: Uterine atony is characterized by a soft, boggy uterus that fails to
contract effectively, leading to heavy postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony is the
most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs within the first
24 hours after delivery.
4. A patient with gestational diabetes should be instructed to:
A. Monitor blood glucose levels and follow a prescribed diet plan
B. Increase sugar intake for energy
C. Avoid prenatal vitamins
D. Only check glucose levels weekly
Answer: A
Rationale: Management of gestational diabetes involves blood glucose monitoring
and dietary modifications to maintain euglycemia and prevent maternal and fetal
complications. Insulin therapy may be required if glucose targets are not met with
diet alone.
5. A neonate born to a diabetic mother is at increased risk for:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperthermia
D. Anemia only
Answer: A
Rationale: Infants of diabetic mothers are at risk for hypoglycemia due to fetal
hyperinsulinism in response to maternal hyperglycemia. After birth, the continued
high insulin levels cause a rapid drop in blood glucose. These newborns also have
higher risks of macrosomia, respiratory distress, and congenital anomalies.
6. Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as hemorrhage occurring:
A. Within 24 hours of delivery
,B. Between 24 hours and 6 weeks postpartum
C. After 6 weeks postpartum
D. Only with cesarean section deliveries
Answer: A
Rationale: Early postpartum hemorrhage occurs within the first 24 hours after
delivery and is most commonly caused by uterine atony. Late postpartum
hemorrhage occurs between 24 hours and 6 weeks postpartum.
7. The nurse notes prolonged decelerations on the fetal monitor. The immediate
action is to:
A. Reposition the mother, administer oxygen, and notify the provider
B. Encourage ambulation
C. Document the findings only
D. Increase IV fluids without notifying the provider
Answer: A
Rationale: Prolonged decelerations indicate fetal distress and require immediate
intervention. The priority actions include repositioning the mother (often left
lateral), administering oxygen, increasing IV fluids, and notifying the provider. A
full-term newborn has well-curved pinna with soft cartilage that recoils readily.
8. The primary purpose of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is to:
A. Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood
B. Promote fetal lung maturity
C. Treat maternal anemia
D. Prevent gestational diabetes
Answer: A
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers to
prevent sensitization from Rh-positive fetal blood. It is given at 28 weeks gestation
and within 72 hours postpartum if the newborn is Rh-positive.
9. A nonstress test (NST) evaluates:
A. Fetal heart rate response to fetal movement
B. Maternal blood pressure
C. Fundal height measurement
D. Progress of labor
Answer: A
Rationale: A nonstress test evaluates fetal well-being by assessing the fetal heart
rate response to fetal movement. A reactive NST demonstrates at least two
accelerations of the fetal heart rate within a 20-minute period, indicating fetal
health.
, 10. A patient with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for:
A. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
B. Hypotension only
C. Hyperglycemia only
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting that can lead to
dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, weight loss, and nutritional deficiencies. It
requires medical intervention including IV fluids and antiemetics.
11. The newborn reflex tested by stroking the cheek is the:
A. Rooting reflex
B. Moro reflex
C. Palmar grasp
D. Stepping reflex
Answer: A
Rationale: The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the newborn's cheek, causing
the infant to turn their head toward the stimulus and open their mouth. This reflex
facilitates breastfeeding and typically disappears around 3-4 months of age.
12. The most effective method to prevent neonatal hypothermia is:
A. Skin-to-skin contact immediately after birth
B. Incubator only
C. Delaying drying
D. Avoiding blankets
Answer: A
Rationale: Skin-to-skin contact immediately after birth is the most effective
method to prevent neonatal hypothermia. It promotes thermoregulation through
conduction of maternal body heat and also supports breastfeeding and bonding.
13. Signs of respiratory distress in a neonate include:
A. Grunting, nasal flaring, retractions, and tachypnea
B. Normal crying
C. Pink skin color
D. Regular respirations
Answer: A
Rationale: Signs of neonatal respiratory distress include grunting (to maintain
positive end-expiratory pressure), nasal flaring, retractions (intercostal, subcostal,
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST 2026
ALREADY GRADED A+
The NUR 230 Maternal-Newborn Nursing exam comprehensively assesses
nursing care for childbearing families across the perinatal continuum.
Content encompasses antepartum care including prenatal screening,
gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, and high-risk conditions. Intrapartum
topics cover labor stages, fetal monitoring, pain management, and
complications like placental abruption and prolapsed cord. Postpartum
content addresses hemorrhage, infection, uterine involution, lactation, and
maternal mental health. Newborn assessment includes Apgar scoring,
gestational age evaluation, reflexes, thermoregulation, and identification of
congenital anomalies. The exam emphasizes evidence-based interventions,
patient education, and priority nursing actions to promote positive maternal
and neonatal outcomes in diverse clinical settings.
1. A patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain and
vaginal bleeding. The nurse suspects which condition?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Normal Braxton Hicks contractions
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden, intense abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding is a classic
presentation of placental abruption, which is an obstetric emergency requiring
immediate intervention. Placenta previa typically presents with painless bleeding.
Braxton Hicks contractions are not associated with bleeding.
2. The primary risk of a post-term pregnancy (>42 weeks) is:
A. Oligohydramnios and fetal distress
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: A
,Rationale: Post-term pregnancies are at increased risk for oligohydramnios
(decreased amniotic fluid) and subsequent fetal distress due to cord compression
and placental insufficiency. Other complications include macrosomia and
meconium aspiration.
3. Which finding indicates uterine atony in the postpartum period?
A. Soft, boggy fundus with heavy bleeding
B. Firm fundus with minimal bleeding
C. Increased urinary output
D. Abdominal cramping without bleeding
Answer: A
Rationale: Uterine atony is characterized by a soft, boggy uterus that fails to
contract effectively, leading to heavy postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony is the
most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs within the first
24 hours after delivery.
4. A patient with gestational diabetes should be instructed to:
A. Monitor blood glucose levels and follow a prescribed diet plan
B. Increase sugar intake for energy
C. Avoid prenatal vitamins
D. Only check glucose levels weekly
Answer: A
Rationale: Management of gestational diabetes involves blood glucose monitoring
and dietary modifications to maintain euglycemia and prevent maternal and fetal
complications. Insulin therapy may be required if glucose targets are not met with
diet alone.
5. A neonate born to a diabetic mother is at increased risk for:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperthermia
D. Anemia only
Answer: A
Rationale: Infants of diabetic mothers are at risk for hypoglycemia due to fetal
hyperinsulinism in response to maternal hyperglycemia. After birth, the continued
high insulin levels cause a rapid drop in blood glucose. These newborns also have
higher risks of macrosomia, respiratory distress, and congenital anomalies.
6. Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as hemorrhage occurring:
A. Within 24 hours of delivery
,B. Between 24 hours and 6 weeks postpartum
C. After 6 weeks postpartum
D. Only with cesarean section deliveries
Answer: A
Rationale: Early postpartum hemorrhage occurs within the first 24 hours after
delivery and is most commonly caused by uterine atony. Late postpartum
hemorrhage occurs between 24 hours and 6 weeks postpartum.
7. The nurse notes prolonged decelerations on the fetal monitor. The immediate
action is to:
A. Reposition the mother, administer oxygen, and notify the provider
B. Encourage ambulation
C. Document the findings only
D. Increase IV fluids without notifying the provider
Answer: A
Rationale: Prolonged decelerations indicate fetal distress and require immediate
intervention. The priority actions include repositioning the mother (often left
lateral), administering oxygen, increasing IV fluids, and notifying the provider. A
full-term newborn has well-curved pinna with soft cartilage that recoils readily.
8. The primary purpose of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is to:
A. Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood
B. Promote fetal lung maturity
C. Treat maternal anemia
D. Prevent gestational diabetes
Answer: A
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers to
prevent sensitization from Rh-positive fetal blood. It is given at 28 weeks gestation
and within 72 hours postpartum if the newborn is Rh-positive.
9. A nonstress test (NST) evaluates:
A. Fetal heart rate response to fetal movement
B. Maternal blood pressure
C. Fundal height measurement
D. Progress of labor
Answer: A
Rationale: A nonstress test evaluates fetal well-being by assessing the fetal heart
rate response to fetal movement. A reactive NST demonstrates at least two
accelerations of the fetal heart rate within a 20-minute period, indicating fetal
health.
, 10. A patient with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for:
A. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
B. Hypotension only
C. Hyperglycemia only
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting that can lead to
dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, weight loss, and nutritional deficiencies. It
requires medical intervention including IV fluids and antiemetics.
11. The newborn reflex tested by stroking the cheek is the:
A. Rooting reflex
B. Moro reflex
C. Palmar grasp
D. Stepping reflex
Answer: A
Rationale: The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the newborn's cheek, causing
the infant to turn their head toward the stimulus and open their mouth. This reflex
facilitates breastfeeding and typically disappears around 3-4 months of age.
12. The most effective method to prevent neonatal hypothermia is:
A. Skin-to-skin contact immediately after birth
B. Incubator only
C. Delaying drying
D. Avoiding blankets
Answer: A
Rationale: Skin-to-skin contact immediately after birth is the most effective
method to prevent neonatal hypothermia. It promotes thermoregulation through
conduction of maternal body heat and also supports breastfeeding and bonding.
13. Signs of respiratory distress in a neonate include:
A. Grunting, nasal flaring, retractions, and tachypnea
B. Normal crying
C. Pink skin color
D. Regular respirations
Answer: A
Rationale: Signs of neonatal respiratory distress include grunting (to maintain
positive end-expiratory pressure), nasal flaring, retractions (intercostal, subcostal,
