EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED
A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE
2026/2027 OFFICIAL EXAM
150 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Medical-Surgical Nursing Pharmacology & Medication Administration
Maternal-Newborn & Pediatric Nursing Fundamentals & Patient Safety
Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Clinical Judgment & Case Scenarios
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Medical-Surgical Nursing | Q1-Q30 | EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS R
Q1 Question 1 of 150
Q1. A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted with increased
dyspnea, productive cough, and wheezing. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.30, PaCO2 60, PaO2 58, and
HCO3 32. Which acid-base imbalance does this patient exhibit?
A. Respiratory alkalosis with partial renal compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis with partial renal compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
D. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The low pH (7.30) indicates acidosis. Elevated PaCO2 (60) indicates respiratory origin with alveolar hypoventilation,
common in COPD exacerbation. Elevated HCO3 (32) reflects renal compensation retaining bicarbonate. Respiratory
alkalosis would have low PaCO2; metabolic disorders show primary HCO3 changes. The pattern is classic respiratory
acidosis with compensation.
Q2 Question 2 of 150
Q2. A 55-year-old female is admitted with acute cholecystitis. She reports right upper quadrant pain radiating to
the right shoulder, nausea, and vomiting after eating fried foods. Which assessment finding would the nurse
expect on physical examination?
A. McBurney point tenderness in the right lower quadrant
B. Rebound tenderness at the left lower quadrant
C. Hepatomegaly with shifting dullness in the abdomen
D. Murphy sign elicited by palpating the right upper quadrant during inspiration
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Murphy sign is positive when palpation of the right upper quadrant during inspiration causes severe pain and inspiratory
arrest, classic for cholecystitis. McBurney point tenderness suggests appendicitis; left lower quadrant rebound suggests
diverticulitis; shifting dullness indicates ascites. The right shoulder radiation occurs due to diaphragmatic irritation
referring pain via the phrenic nerve.
EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 2 of 76
, Q3 Question 3 of 150
Q3. A 72-year-old male with heart failure has a daily weight gain of 3 pounds over 24 hours despite adherence
to his diuretic regimen. Vital signs reveal blood pressure 160/92, heart rate 98, and respiratory rate 24 with
bilateral crackles. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Restrict all oral fluid intake to less than 500 mL per 24 hours
B. Discontinue the prescribed beta-blocker immediately
C. Administer an additional dose of furosemide as prescribed for fluid overload
D. Place the patient in high Fowler position without further intervention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Acute weight gain of 3 pounds in 24 hours plus crackles indicates worsening fluid overload requiring additional diuretic
therapy. Fluid restriction alone is insufficient for acute decompensation; beta-blocker discontinuation is not indicated;
positioning alone does not address fluid overload. The nurse administers prescribed supplemental diuretics and notifies
the provider.
Q4 Question 4 of 150
Q4. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a foot ulcer that has not healed in 8 weeks. The ulcer
is on the plantar surface of the right great toe with surrounding callus. Which pathophysiology most likely
contributes to this non-healing wound?
A. Peripheral arterial disease causing inadequate blood flow to the lower extremity
B. Venous insufficiency causing chronic edema and stasis dermatitis
C. Lymphatic obstruction leading to protein-rich fluid accumulation
D. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy with pressure-related tissue injury unnoticed by the patient
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Plantar ulcers with surrounding callus are classic for diabetic neuropathic ulcers caused by loss of protective sensation
and repetitive pressure. Peripheral arterial disease causes painful ischemic ulcers on toes or lateral foot; venous
insufficiency causes ulcers at the medial malleolus; lymphatic obstruction causes swelling but not pressure ulcers.
Offloading and wound care are essential.
EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 3 of 76
, Q5 Question 5 of 150
Q5. A 45-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus is started on prednisone 60 mg daily. Which
patient teaching is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge education?
A. Stop taking the medication abruptly once symptoms resolve to prevent dependency
B. Monitor blood glucose regularly and report signs of infection immediately
C. Take the medication in the evening to mimic natural cortisol rhythm
D. Increase dietary sodium intake to compensate for medication effects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Prednisone causes hyperglycemia, immunosuppression, and adrenal suppression. Patients must monitor blood glucose
and report infection promptly due to masked inflammatory response. Abrupt discontinuation causes adrenal crisis;
dosing should mimic morning cortisol peak; sodium should be limited due to fluid retention. Glucocorticoid education is
critical for safe outpatient management.
Q6 Question 6 of 150
Q6. A 78-year-old male with benign prostatic hyperplasia reports hesitancy, weak stream, and incomplete
emptying. Postvoid residual measured by bladder scan is 250 mL. Which complication is the patient at greatest
risk for developing?
A. Acute tubular necrosis from reduced renal perfusion
B. Urinary tract infection from urinary stasis and residual urine
C. Nephrotic syndrome from glomerular inflammation
D. Renal cell carcinoma from chronic irritation of the renal pelvis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
High postvoid residual of 250 mL causes urinary stasis, promoting bacterial growth and increasing risk of UTI. Acute
tubular necrosis results from ischemia or nephrotoxins; nephrotic syndrome reflects glomerular disease; renal cell
carcinoma is not caused by bladder outlet obstruction. Recurrent UTIs may warrant surgical intervention such as TURP.
EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 4 of 76
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED
A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE
2026/2027 OFFICIAL EXAM
150 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Medical-Surgical Nursing Pharmacology & Medication Administration
Maternal-Newborn & Pediatric Nursing Fundamentals & Patient Safety
Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Clinical Judgment & Case Scenarios
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Medical-Surgical Nursing | Q1-Q30 | EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS R
Q1 Question 1 of 150
Q1. A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted with increased
dyspnea, productive cough, and wheezing. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.30, PaCO2 60, PaO2 58, and
HCO3 32. Which acid-base imbalance does this patient exhibit?
A. Respiratory alkalosis with partial renal compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis with partial renal compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
D. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The low pH (7.30) indicates acidosis. Elevated PaCO2 (60) indicates respiratory origin with alveolar hypoventilation,
common in COPD exacerbation. Elevated HCO3 (32) reflects renal compensation retaining bicarbonate. Respiratory
alkalosis would have low PaCO2; metabolic disorders show primary HCO3 changes. The pattern is classic respiratory
acidosis with compensation.
Q2 Question 2 of 150
Q2. A 55-year-old female is admitted with acute cholecystitis. She reports right upper quadrant pain radiating to
the right shoulder, nausea, and vomiting after eating fried foods. Which assessment finding would the nurse
expect on physical examination?
A. McBurney point tenderness in the right lower quadrant
B. Rebound tenderness at the left lower quadrant
C. Hepatomegaly with shifting dullness in the abdomen
D. Murphy sign elicited by palpating the right upper quadrant during inspiration
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Murphy sign is positive when palpation of the right upper quadrant during inspiration causes severe pain and inspiratory
arrest, classic for cholecystitis. McBurney point tenderness suggests appendicitis; left lower quadrant rebound suggests
diverticulitis; shifting dullness indicates ascites. The right shoulder radiation occurs due to diaphragmatic irritation
referring pain via the phrenic nerve.
EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 2 of 76
, Q3 Question 3 of 150
Q3. A 72-year-old male with heart failure has a daily weight gain of 3 pounds over 24 hours despite adherence
to his diuretic regimen. Vital signs reveal blood pressure 160/92, heart rate 98, and respiratory rate 24 with
bilateral crackles. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Restrict all oral fluid intake to less than 500 mL per 24 hours
B. Discontinue the prescribed beta-blocker immediately
C. Administer an additional dose of furosemide as prescribed for fluid overload
D. Place the patient in high Fowler position without further intervention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Acute weight gain of 3 pounds in 24 hours plus crackles indicates worsening fluid overload requiring additional diuretic
therapy. Fluid restriction alone is insufficient for acute decompensation; beta-blocker discontinuation is not indicated;
positioning alone does not address fluid overload. The nurse administers prescribed supplemental diuretics and notifies
the provider.
Q4 Question 4 of 150
Q4. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a foot ulcer that has not healed in 8 weeks. The ulcer
is on the plantar surface of the right great toe with surrounding callus. Which pathophysiology most likely
contributes to this non-healing wound?
A. Peripheral arterial disease causing inadequate blood flow to the lower extremity
B. Venous insufficiency causing chronic edema and stasis dermatitis
C. Lymphatic obstruction leading to protein-rich fluid accumulation
D. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy with pressure-related tissue injury unnoticed by the patient
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Plantar ulcers with surrounding callus are classic for diabetic neuropathic ulcers caused by loss of protective sensation
and repetitive pressure. Peripheral arterial disease causes painful ischemic ulcers on toes or lateral foot; venous
insufficiency causes ulcers at the medial malleolus; lymphatic obstruction causes swelling but not pressure ulcers.
Offloading and wound care are essential.
EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 3 of 76
, Q5 Question 5 of 150
Q5. A 45-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus is started on prednisone 60 mg daily. Which
patient teaching is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge education?
A. Stop taking the medication abruptly once symptoms resolve to prevent dependency
B. Monitor blood glucose regularly and report signs of infection immediately
C. Take the medication in the evening to mimic natural cortisol rhythm
D. Increase dietary sodium intake to compensate for medication effects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Prednisone causes hyperglycemia, immunosuppression, and adrenal suppression. Patients must monitor blood glucose
and report infection promptly due to masked inflammatory response. Abrupt discontinuation causes adrenal crisis;
dosing should mimic morning cortisol peak; sodium should be limited due to fluid retention. Glucocorticoid education is
critical for safe outpatient management.
Q6 Question 6 of 150
Q6. A 78-year-old male with benign prostatic hyperplasia reports hesitancy, weak stream, and incomplete
emptying. Postvoid residual measured by bladder scan is 250 mL. Which complication is the patient at greatest
risk for developing?
A. Acute tubular necrosis from reduced renal perfusion
B. Urinary tract infection from urinary stasis and residual urine
C. Nephrotic syndrome from glomerular inflammation
D. Renal cell carcinoma from chronic irritation of the renal pelvis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
High postvoid residual of 250 mL causes urinary stasis, promoting bacterial growth and increasing risk of UTI. Acute
tubular necrosis results from ischemia or nephrotoxins; nephrotic syndrome reflects glomerular disease; renal cell
carcinoma is not caused by bladder outlet obstruction. Recurrent UTIs may warrant surgical intervention such as TURP.
EXIT HESI V2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027 GUIDE -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 4 of 76
