CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam NR547 MAY 2026
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_jqfs9r
1. The patient is exhibiting a productive Left upper lobe lingula
cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described
on PA view shows a left lower chest in this question precisely. If the cardiac mar-
area of consolidation adjacent to the gin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the
left border of the heart approximate- lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
ly 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic lobe lingula.
angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior
to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
2. The inability to fully relax the myocardi- Diastolic dysfunction
um during relaxation is a trademark of Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
which of the following diagnoses? trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunc-
tion and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
3. An otherwise healthy African American Calcium channel blocker
adult male has been diagnosed with Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
hypertension. He has been restricting Hypertension Guidelines should be managed
his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line man-
and exercising more, but his blood pres- agement therapy for hypertension not at goal
sure is still elevated. Which is the BEST with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
medication to prescribe him?
4.
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam NR547 MAY 2026
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_jqfs9r
Your patient has been diagnosed with CT angiography of the chest
a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Rationale: CT angiography is considered the
Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for measuring vascular lumi-
standard of care for serial surveillance? nal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for
the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is
able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction
needed to accurately measure the size. Trans-
esophageal echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
5. Which of the following medications phenylephrine
does not cause beta 1 stimulation? Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha
1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta
receptor activity.
6. A 50-year-old woman with a history of Congestive heart failure
hypertension presents with dyspnea on Rationale: Of the available options, the most
exertion and orthopnea. On examina- accurate response is congestive heart failure
tion, she has jugular venous distention as it is signifying both a right ventricular back
and bilateral crackles on lung ausculta- up with jugular venous extension and crackles
tion. What is the most likely diagnosis? on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient
may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not de-
scribed that, rather is only describing dyspnea
on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak
to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate
response of these available is congestive heart
failure.
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam NR547 MAY 2026
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_jqfs9r
7. Your patient with a history of HFrEF Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and
(heart failure with reduced ejection order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
fraction) with an ejection fraction of Rationale: The patient should have a protective
40% who is also not on optimal med- mechanism such as an implantable automated
ical therapy has been diagnosed with cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if
a myocardial infarction this admission the EF is less than 35% due to the increased
and received emergent placement of risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states.
a drug-eluting stent to the left anteri- Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days
or descending artery. As the medical for an AICD in this state, optimizing their med-
home who will manage this patient af- ication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3
ter discharge, which medication strate- months to re-evaluate for improvement in their
gy would you expect to be a priority in EF is required by most insurance companies. A
the patient's care? baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide
a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo
in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12
months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceiv-
able benefit for this patient as presented.
8. Which of the following people groups Caucasians
represent the least risk of cardiac dis- Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native
ease? Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at in-
creased risk of cardiac disease due to high-
er rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity
than Caucasians.
9. A 65-year-old woman presents for a fol- a statin drug.
low-up examination. She is a smoker, Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and choles-
and her hypertension is now adequately terol absorption inhibitors may be useful in re-
controlled with medication. Her mother ducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an
died at age 40 from a heart attack. The active smoker with premature coronary disease
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam NR547 MAY 2026
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_jqfs9r
fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = history (less than age 65 for women), has hy-
240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In pertension and is far from an LDL goal, this
addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle patient is most certainly a candidate for statin
changes, the nurse practitioner should therapy, which represents the most aggressive
start the patient on: therapy option of these four listed.
10. Which of the following end-organ se- Peripheral neuropathy
quelae is not directly caused by uncon- Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension
trolled hypertension? frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only
directly attributed to patients who are also di-
abetic and is commonly found in non-hyper-
tensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nick-
ing, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by
uncontrolled hypertension.
11. Preventive cardiac care should focus pri- Genetic predisposition
marily on addressing all the following Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and
except? medication compliance all represent modifi-
able risk factors and should be the focus of pre-
ventive care. Non-modifiable risk factors such
as age, gender, genetic/family history should
not be the primary focus of prevention.
12. A 33-year-old woman presents with ir- Oral contraceptives
regular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and Rationale: These are classic symptoms of poly-
obesity. Laboratory tests reveal elevat- cystic ovarian syndrome and the patient should
ed serum testosterone and LH ratio > be treated with oral contraceptives to help sta-
2:1. What is the most appropriate initial bilize their estrogen and progesterone. Addi-
treatment? tionally, they may be managed on metformin
and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first
pharmacological treatment for polycystic ovary
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_jqfs9r
1. The patient is exhibiting a productive Left upper lobe lingula
cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described
on PA view shows a left lower chest in this question precisely. If the cardiac mar-
area of consolidation adjacent to the gin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the
left border of the heart approximate- lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
ly 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic lobe lingula.
angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior
to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
2. The inability to fully relax the myocardi- Diastolic dysfunction
um during relaxation is a trademark of Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
which of the following diagnoses? trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunc-
tion and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
3. An otherwise healthy African American Calcium channel blocker
adult male has been diagnosed with Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
hypertension. He has been restricting Hypertension Guidelines should be managed
his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line man-
and exercising more, but his blood pres- agement therapy for hypertension not at goal
sure is still elevated. Which is the BEST with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
medication to prescribe him?
4.
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam NR547 MAY 2026
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_jqfs9r
Your patient has been diagnosed with CT angiography of the chest
a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Rationale: CT angiography is considered the
Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for measuring vascular lumi-
standard of care for serial surveillance? nal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for
the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is
able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction
needed to accurately measure the size. Trans-
esophageal echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
5. Which of the following medications phenylephrine
does not cause beta 1 stimulation? Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha
1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta
receptor activity.
6. A 50-year-old woman with a history of Congestive heart failure
hypertension presents with dyspnea on Rationale: Of the available options, the most
exertion and orthopnea. On examina- accurate response is congestive heart failure
tion, she has jugular venous distention as it is signifying both a right ventricular back
and bilateral crackles on lung ausculta- up with jugular venous extension and crackles
tion. What is the most likely diagnosis? on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient
may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not de-
scribed that, rather is only describing dyspnea
on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak
to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate
response of these available is congestive heart
failure.
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam NR547 MAY 2026
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_jqfs9r
7. Your patient with a history of HFrEF Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and
(heart failure with reduced ejection order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
fraction) with an ejection fraction of Rationale: The patient should have a protective
40% who is also not on optimal med- mechanism such as an implantable automated
ical therapy has been diagnosed with cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if
a myocardial infarction this admission the EF is less than 35% due to the increased
and received emergent placement of risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states.
a drug-eluting stent to the left anteri- Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days
or descending artery. As the medical for an AICD in this state, optimizing their med-
home who will manage this patient af- ication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3
ter discharge, which medication strate- months to re-evaluate for improvement in their
gy would you expect to be a priority in EF is required by most insurance companies. A
the patient's care? baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide
a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo
in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12
months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceiv-
able benefit for this patient as presented.
8. Which of the following people groups Caucasians
represent the least risk of cardiac dis- Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native
ease? Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at in-
creased risk of cardiac disease due to high-
er rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity
than Caucasians.
9. A 65-year-old woman presents for a fol- a statin drug.
low-up examination. She is a smoker, Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and choles-
and her hypertension is now adequately terol absorption inhibitors may be useful in re-
controlled with medication. Her mother ducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an
died at age 40 from a heart attack. The active smoker with premature coronary disease
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam NR547 MAY 2026
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_jqfs9r
fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = history (less than age 65 for women), has hy-
240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In pertension and is far from an LDL goal, this
addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle patient is most certainly a candidate for statin
changes, the nurse practitioner should therapy, which represents the most aggressive
start the patient on: therapy option of these four listed.
10. Which of the following end-organ se- Peripheral neuropathy
quelae is not directly caused by uncon- Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension
trolled hypertension? frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only
directly attributed to patients who are also di-
abetic and is commonly found in non-hyper-
tensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nick-
ing, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by
uncontrolled hypertension.
11. Preventive cardiac care should focus pri- Genetic predisposition
marily on addressing all the following Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and
except? medication compliance all represent modifi-
able risk factors and should be the focus of pre-
ventive care. Non-modifiable risk factors such
as age, gender, genetic/family history should
not be the primary focus of prevention.
12. A 33-year-old woman presents with ir- Oral contraceptives
regular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and Rationale: These are classic symptoms of poly-
obesity. Laboratory tests reveal elevat- cystic ovarian syndrome and the patient should
ed serum testosterone and LH ratio > be treated with oral contraceptives to help sta-
2:1. What is the most appropriate initial bilize their estrogen and progesterone. Addi-
treatment? tionally, they may be managed on metformin
and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first
pharmacological treatment for polycystic ovary
