Florida NCLEX Pharmacology and Medication Administration
Practice Exam IV Updated Exam 2026 WITH Recent Newest
Verified And Well Analyzed Exam Questions (Actual Exam 2026-
2027) Correct Detailed & Verified ANSWERS (100% Accurate
Solutions) ALREADY GRADED A+||NEWEST VERSION Of
The Exam Guarantee Pass!!
1. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes
mellitus. When should regular insulin generally be administered to achieve optimal
glucose control?
A. Immediately after the meal
B. 30 minutes before the meal
C. At bedtime only
D. Two hours after the meal
Answer: B. 30 minutes before the meal
Rationale: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin with an onset of approximately 30 to 60
minutes. Administering it about 30 minutes before meals allows the insulin to begin
lowering blood glucose as nutrients are absorbed, reducing the risk of postprandial
hyperglycemia.
2. A client receives intravenous morphine for postoperative pain. Which assessment is
the nurse's highest priority?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Respiratory rate
C. Appetite
D. Urine color
Answer: B. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression, the most serious adverse effect of
opioid therapy. The nurse should assess respiratory rate, depth, oxygen saturation, and
level of consciousness before and after administration.
, 3. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely for a client receiving
unfractionated heparin?
A. INR
B. Platelet count only
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: The aPTT is used to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of unfractionated
heparin. Therapeutic values are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value.
4. A client taking warfarin should immediately report which finding?
A. Mild thirst
B. Bruising and black stools
C. Increased appetite
D. Dry skin
Answer: B. Bruising and black stools
Rationale: Bruising and black, tarry stools indicate possible internal bleeding, a potentially
life-threatening complication of warfarin therapy that requires immediate medical
evaluation.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin tablets. Which statement by the
client indicates correct understanding?
A. "I'll swallow the tablet with water."
B. "I'll place the tablet under my tongue."
C. "I'll chew the tablet."
D. "I'll take it after chest pain is gone."
Answer: B. "I'll place the tablet under my tongue."
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin dissolves rapidly under the tongue, allowing quick
absorption and prompt relief of angina by dilating coronary arteries.
, 6. Which medication should the nurse question before administering to a client with a
serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L?
A. Furosemide
B. Potassium chloride
C. Normal saline
D. Acetaminophen
Answer: B. Potassium chloride
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Administering
potassium supplements could worsen the condition and increase the risk of dangerous
cardiac dysrhythmias.
7. Which adverse effect is commonly associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Constipation
C. Weight gain
D. Blurred vision
Answer: A. Persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly increase bradykinin levels, resulting in a persistent,
dry, nonproductive cough that often leads to discontinuation of therapy.
8. A client receiving digoxin develops nausea and sees yellow halos around lights.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer another dose.
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider.
C. Encourage fluids.
D. Administer potassium supplements immediately.
Practice Exam IV Updated Exam 2026 WITH Recent Newest
Verified And Well Analyzed Exam Questions (Actual Exam 2026-
2027) Correct Detailed & Verified ANSWERS (100% Accurate
Solutions) ALREADY GRADED A+||NEWEST VERSION Of
The Exam Guarantee Pass!!
1. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes
mellitus. When should regular insulin generally be administered to achieve optimal
glucose control?
A. Immediately after the meal
B. 30 minutes before the meal
C. At bedtime only
D. Two hours after the meal
Answer: B. 30 minutes before the meal
Rationale: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin with an onset of approximately 30 to 60
minutes. Administering it about 30 minutes before meals allows the insulin to begin
lowering blood glucose as nutrients are absorbed, reducing the risk of postprandial
hyperglycemia.
2. A client receives intravenous morphine for postoperative pain. Which assessment is
the nurse's highest priority?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Respiratory rate
C. Appetite
D. Urine color
Answer: B. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression, the most serious adverse effect of
opioid therapy. The nurse should assess respiratory rate, depth, oxygen saturation, and
level of consciousness before and after administration.
, 3. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely for a client receiving
unfractionated heparin?
A. INR
B. Platelet count only
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: The aPTT is used to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of unfractionated
heparin. Therapeutic values are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value.
4. A client taking warfarin should immediately report which finding?
A. Mild thirst
B. Bruising and black stools
C. Increased appetite
D. Dry skin
Answer: B. Bruising and black stools
Rationale: Bruising and black, tarry stools indicate possible internal bleeding, a potentially
life-threatening complication of warfarin therapy that requires immediate medical
evaluation.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin tablets. Which statement by the
client indicates correct understanding?
A. "I'll swallow the tablet with water."
B. "I'll place the tablet under my tongue."
C. "I'll chew the tablet."
D. "I'll take it after chest pain is gone."
Answer: B. "I'll place the tablet under my tongue."
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin dissolves rapidly under the tongue, allowing quick
absorption and prompt relief of angina by dilating coronary arteries.
, 6. Which medication should the nurse question before administering to a client with a
serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L?
A. Furosemide
B. Potassium chloride
C. Normal saline
D. Acetaminophen
Answer: B. Potassium chloride
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Administering
potassium supplements could worsen the condition and increase the risk of dangerous
cardiac dysrhythmias.
7. Which adverse effect is commonly associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Constipation
C. Weight gain
D. Blurred vision
Answer: A. Persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly increase bradykinin levels, resulting in a persistent,
dry, nonproductive cough that often leads to discontinuation of therapy.
8. A client receiving digoxin develops nausea and sees yellow halos around lights.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer another dose.
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider.
C. Encourage fluids.
D. Administer potassium supplements immediately.
