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1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which
assessment finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
B. Apical pulse of 54 beats/minute
C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute
D. Oxygen saturation of 96%
Answer: B. Apical pulse of 54 beats/minute
Rationale: Digoxin slows heart rate and increases the force of cardiac contraction. An
apical pulse below 60 beats/minute in an adult is generally a reason to withhold the
medication and notify the provider because of the increased risk of symptomatic
bradycardia and digoxin toxicity.
2. A client receiving intravenous vancomycin suddenly develops flushing of the face, neck,
and upper torso. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Stop the infusion and notify the provider
B. Administer epinephrine immediately
C. Continue the infusion at the prescribed rate
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Answer: A. Stop the infusion and notify the provider
Rationale: The client is likely experiencing "Red Man Syndrome," an infusion-related
reaction caused by rapid administration of vancomycin. The nurse should stop or slow the
infusion, assess the client, and notify the provider. Future doses should be infused more
slowly.
,3. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement by the client
indicates correct understanding?
A. "I will avoid eating all green vegetables."
B. "I should take aspirin if I have a headache."
C. "I will have my INR checked regularly."
D. "I can stop the medication once I feel better."
Answer: C. "I will have my INR checked regularly."
Rationale: Warfarin requires routine monitoring of the International Normalized Ratio (INR)
to ensure safe and therapeutic anticoagulation. Clients should maintain consistent—not
eliminate—vitamin K intake and avoid aspirin unless prescribed.
4. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before administering heparin?
A. Hemoglobin A1C
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Sodium level
D. Serum calcium
Answer: B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: The aPTT measures the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy and
helps determine whether dosage adjustments are necessary while monitoring for bleeding
risk.
5. A client taking furosemide should be monitored closely for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion. Hypokalemia
can lead to muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and increased sensitivity to digoxin.
, 6. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin. Which route is appropriate for
intravenous administration?
A. NPH insulin
B. Insulin glargine
C. Regular insulin
D. Insulin detemir
Answer: C. Regular insulin
Rationale: Regular insulin is the only commonly used insulin that may be administered
intravenously in emergency situations such as diabetic ketoacidosis.
7. Which instruction is most important for a client taking nitroglycerin sublingual tablets?
A. Swallow the tablet with water.
B. Store the tablets in the bathroom.
C. Sit down before taking the medication.
D. Take the medication after meals.
Answer: C. Sit down before taking the medication.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, which may result in dizziness or orthostatic
hypotension. Sitting or lying down helps reduce the risk of falls.
8. Which medication is classified as a beta-adrenergic blocker?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metoprolol
C. Losartan
D. Amlodipine
Answer: B. Metoprolol
Rationale: Metoprolol blocks beta-1 receptors in the heart, decreasing heart rate,
myocardial contractility, and blood pressure.
9. A client taking lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and tongue. What should the nurse
do first?