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1. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately after birth. Which assessment finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate of 140 beats/minute
B. Respiratory rate of 48 breaths/minute
C. Central cyanosis lasting longer than 5 minutes after birth
D. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
Answer: C. Central cyanosis lasting longer than 5 minutes after birth
Rationale: Persistent central cyanosis suggests inadequate oxygenation and may indicate a
serious cardiopulmonary condition requiring immediate evaluation. A heart rate of 140
beats/minute and respiratory rate of 48 breaths/minute are normal for a newborn.
Acrocyanosis is a common and expected finding during the first 24 to 48 hours of life.
2. A 4-month-old infant is scheduled to receive routine immunizations. Which vaccine
should the nurse expect to administer?
A. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
B. Varicella
C. DTaP
D. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Answer: C. DTaP
Rationale: The DTaP vaccine is routinely administered during infancy at 2, 4, and 6 months.
MMR and varicella vaccines are generally given at 12 to 15 months, while HPV vaccination
begins during adolescence.
3. Which developmental milestone is expected for a 6-month-old infant?
,A. Walks independently
B. Rolls from back to abdomen
C. Speaks in complete sentences
D. Rides a tricycle
Answer: B. Rolls from back to abdomen
Rationale: A 6-month-old infant commonly rolls in both directions, sits with support,
transfers objects between hands, and begins babbling. Walking, speaking in complete
sentences, and riding a tricycle occur much later in childhood.
4. Which finding is most concerning in a child diagnosed with dehydration?
A. Moist oral mucosa
B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
C. Heart rate appropriate for age
D. Urine output of 2 mL/kg/hour
Answer: B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
Rationale: A prolonged capillary refill time indicates poor peripheral perfusion and
significant dehydration. Moist mucous membranes, normal heart rate, and adequate urine
output suggest sufficient hydration.
5. A nurse is teaching parents about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) prevention.
Which statement by the parent indicates correct understanding?
A. "I will place my baby on the stomach to sleep."
B. "Soft blankets keep my baby safer."
C. "I will place my baby on the back to sleep."
D. "My baby should sleep with me in my bed."
Answer: C. "I will place my baby on the back to sleep."
Rationale: Placing infants on their backs for every sleep significantly reduces the risk of
SIDS. Soft bedding and bed-sharing increase the risk of suffocation and should be avoided.
6. A toddler is admitted with acute otitis media. Which behavior is most likely?
, A. Pulling at the affected ear
B. Complaining of blurred vision
C. Refusing to move the legs
D. Excessive thirst
Answer: A. Pulling at the affected ear
Rationale: Ear pulling, irritability, fever, and crying are common signs of otitis media in
young children. The other findings are unrelated to middle ear infections.
7. Which action should the nurse take first when caring for a child experiencing a
tonic-clonic seizure?
A. Insert an oral airway.
B. Restrain the child.
C. Protect the child from injury.
D. Offer fluids.
Answer: C. Protect the child from injury.
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is maintaining safety by protecting the child from
injury and positioning them appropriately. Nothing should be placed in the child's mouth,
restraints should be avoided, and fluids are contraindicated until the child is fully alert.
8. A nurse is assessing a child with suspected appendicitis. Which symptom is most
characteristic?
A. Left lower quadrant pain
B. Pain beginning around the umbilicus and migrating to the right lower quadrant
C. Diffuse pain relieved by eating
D. Pain relieved by jumping
Answer: B. Pain beginning around the umbilicus and migrating to the right lower
quadrant
Rationale: Appendicitis typically begins with vague periumbilical pain that later localizes to
the right lower quadrant. Movement usually worsens the pain.