NUR 254 Maternal & Pediatric Nursing
Exams 1-4 Galen Complete Bundle Actual
Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style
Questions with 200 Qs | 100% Verified –
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
EXAM 1: ANTEPARTUM & MATERNITY NURSING (Questions 1-50)
Question 1
A client at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting, especially in the
morning. Which intervention should the nurse recommend?
A. Eat a large meal before bed
B. Eat dry crackers before rising in the morning
C. Drink fluids with meals
D. Avoid eating between meals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before rising in the morning helps reduce morning
sickness by stabilizing blood glucose and settling the stomach. Small, frequent
meals are recommended, and fluids should be taken between meals, not with
meals.
,Question 2
A client at 12 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she will be able to feel fetal
movement. The nurse's best response is:
A. "You should feel movement by 8 weeks"
B. "Most women feel movement between 16-20 weeks"
C. "You will feel movement by 12 weeks"
D. "Fetal movement is not felt until 24 weeks"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primigravidas typically feel fetal movement (quickening) between 18-20
weeks. Multigravidas may feel movement as early as 16 weeks. Fetal movement is
not typically felt before 16 weeks.
Question 3
A client at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which finding
is most concerning?
A. Fasting blood glucose of 95 mg/dL
B. Postprandial blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
C. Hemoglobin A1c of 5.8%
D. Ketonuria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ketonuria in gestational diabetes indicates inadequate glucose
utilization and fat breakdown, which can lead to ketoacidosis and fetal
compromise. Fasting glucose <105 mg/dL and postprandial <140 mg/dL are
acceptable targets.
,Question 4
A client at 32 weeks gestation with preeclampsia reports a headache and blurred
vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer acetaminophen for headache
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room
D. Reassure the client that these are normal symptoms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Headache and visual disturbances in a preeclamptic patient indicate
severe preeclampsia and potential progression to eclampsia. Immediate
notification of the provider and seizure precautions are required.
Question 5
A client at 36 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and her partner is Rh-positive. The
nurse should anticipate:
A. RhoGAM administration at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of birth
B. RhoGAM administration only after birth
C. RhoGAM administration only if the baby is Rh-negative
D. No RhoGAM is needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks gestation
and again within 72 hours of birth if the infant is Rh-positive. This prevents maternal
sensitization and hemolytic disease of the newborn.
, Question 6
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about the stages of labor. Which stage begins
with complete cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the fetus?
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The second stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation (10
cm) and ends with delivery of the fetus. The first stage is from onset of labor to
complete dilation. The third stage is delivery of the placenta.
Question 7
A client asks the nurse about the purpose of the biophysical profile (BPP). The
nurse's best response is:
A. "It measures your baby's heart rate"
B. "It assesses fetal well-being using ultrasound and non-stress testing"
C. "It determines the baby's gender"
D. "It measures the amount of amniotic fluid only"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) assesses fetal well-being using ultrasound
(fetal movement, tone, breathing, amniotic fluid volume) and a non-stress test. It is
used to evaluate fetal status in high-risk pregnancies.
Exams 1-4 Galen Complete Bundle Actual
Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style
Questions with 200 Qs | 100% Verified –
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
EXAM 1: ANTEPARTUM & MATERNITY NURSING (Questions 1-50)
Question 1
A client at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting, especially in the
morning. Which intervention should the nurse recommend?
A. Eat a large meal before bed
B. Eat dry crackers before rising in the morning
C. Drink fluids with meals
D. Avoid eating between meals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before rising in the morning helps reduce morning
sickness by stabilizing blood glucose and settling the stomach. Small, frequent
meals are recommended, and fluids should be taken between meals, not with
meals.
,Question 2
A client at 12 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she will be able to feel fetal
movement. The nurse's best response is:
A. "You should feel movement by 8 weeks"
B. "Most women feel movement between 16-20 weeks"
C. "You will feel movement by 12 weeks"
D. "Fetal movement is not felt until 24 weeks"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primigravidas typically feel fetal movement (quickening) between 18-20
weeks. Multigravidas may feel movement as early as 16 weeks. Fetal movement is
not typically felt before 16 weeks.
Question 3
A client at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which finding
is most concerning?
A. Fasting blood glucose of 95 mg/dL
B. Postprandial blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
C. Hemoglobin A1c of 5.8%
D. Ketonuria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ketonuria in gestational diabetes indicates inadequate glucose
utilization and fat breakdown, which can lead to ketoacidosis and fetal
compromise. Fasting glucose <105 mg/dL and postprandial <140 mg/dL are
acceptable targets.
,Question 4
A client at 32 weeks gestation with preeclampsia reports a headache and blurred
vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer acetaminophen for headache
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room
D. Reassure the client that these are normal symptoms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Headache and visual disturbances in a preeclamptic patient indicate
severe preeclampsia and potential progression to eclampsia. Immediate
notification of the provider and seizure precautions are required.
Question 5
A client at 36 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and her partner is Rh-positive. The
nurse should anticipate:
A. RhoGAM administration at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of birth
B. RhoGAM administration only after birth
C. RhoGAM administration only if the baby is Rh-negative
D. No RhoGAM is needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks gestation
and again within 72 hours of birth if the infant is Rh-positive. This prevents maternal
sensitization and hemolytic disease of the newborn.
, Question 6
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about the stages of labor. Which stage begins
with complete cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the fetus?
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The second stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation (10
cm) and ends with delivery of the fetus. The first stage is from onset of labor to
complete dilation. The third stage is delivery of the placenta.
Question 7
A client asks the nurse about the purpose of the biophysical profile (BPP). The
nurse's best response is:
A. "It measures your baby's heart rate"
B. "It assesses fetal well-being using ultrasound and non-stress testing"
C. "It determines the baby's gender"
D. "It measures the amount of amniotic fluid only"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) assesses fetal well-being using ultrasound
(fetal movement, tone, breathing, amniotic fluid volume) and a non-stress test. It is
used to evaluate fetal status in high-risk pregnancies.
