NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I (MDC I) Final Exam
Prep Document | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I (MDC I) Final Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document contains 250 verified questions and answers for the
NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I (MDC I) final exam at Rasmussen University, updated for the
2026/2027 academic year. It covers key concepts in multidimensional patient care, including health
promotion, disease prevention, and management of common health alterations across the lifespan.
Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and rationale to reinforce learning and critical
thinking. This resource is designed to help nursing students achieve a thorough understanding of MDC
I content and excel on their final exam.
Key Features:
Health Promotion and Disease Prevention Strategies
Management of Acute and Chronic Health Alterations
Pharmacological and Non-Pharmacological Interventions
Patient Education and Communication Techniques
Safety and Infection Control Principles
Cultural and Ethical Considerations in Care
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 Rasmussen University curriculum changes
- Revised rationales to align with latest evidence-based practice guidelines
- Added new questions on emerging health issues and treatments
- Enhanced distractors to better simulate exam difficulty
- Reorganized content areas for improved study flow
Abstract:
This document provides a rigorous review of NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I, a core nursing course at
Rasmussen University. The 250 questions are meticulously crafted to mirror the final exam format, covering
essential topics such as health promotion, disease prevention, and management of common health alterations
across the lifespan. Each question includes a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying
pathophysiology, nursing interventions, and evidence-based practice. The content is organized into key content
areas with specified question ranges and weights, allowing students to focus their study efforts efficiently. This
resource is an indispensable tool for nursing students seeking to consolidate their knowledge and achieve a high
level of exam readiness. By engaging with these questions, students will develop critical thinking skills and clinical
judgment necessary for safe and effective patient care. The document is updated for the 2026/2027 academic year
to ensure relevance and accuracy.
Keywords:
NUR 2356, Multidimensional Care I, MDC I, Rasmussen University, Nursing Exam Prep, 250 Questions,
Evidence-Based Practice, Health Alterations
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with four options. The correct answer is clearly indicated,
followed by a concise rationale that explains why it is correct and why the other options are incorrect. Rationales
include relevant pathophysiology, nursing interventions, and references to standard nursing textbooks.
Compliance Checklist:
Page 1
, All questions aligned with NUR 2356 course objectives
Answers verified by subject matter experts
Rationales cite evidence-based practice guidelines
Content reflects 2026/2027 curriculum updates
Questions reviewed for clarity and accuracy
Suitable for self-assessment and exam review
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health Promotion and Disease 1-50 Screening guidelines, immunizations, 20%
Prevention lifestyle modifications, risk factor reduction,
primary/secondary/tertiary prevention
Acute and Chronic Health 51-120 Cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, 28%
Alterations gastrointestinal, renal disorders; acute vs.
chronic management; complications
Pharmacological and 121-170 Drug classifications, side effects, 20%
Non-Pharmacological interactions, patient teaching;
Interventions complementary therapies; pain management
Patient Education and 171-210 Health literacy, teaching strategies, cultural 16%
Communication competence, therapeutic communication,
informed consent
Safety and Infection Control 211-240 Standard precautions, isolation, fall 12%
prevention, medication safety, error
reporting, infection prevention
Ethical and Legal Considerations 241-250 Patient rights, confidentiality, advance 4%
directives, ethical dilemmas, scope of
practice
Page 2
,Q1. A patient receiving furosemide 40 mg IV push for acute pulmonary edema has a urine output of
250 mL over the past 2 hours. The nurse notes a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. Which intervention
is most appropriate to prevent a life-threatening complication?
A. Administer potassium chloride 10 mEq IV over 1 hour
B. Hold the next dose of furosemide until potassium normalizes
C. Encourage high-potassium foods such as bananas and oranges
D. Administer spironolactone 25 mg orally now
Correct Answer: A. Administer potassium chloride 10 mEq IV over 1 hour
Rationale: Severe hypokalemia (3.2 mEq/L) in a patient on loop diuretics predisposes to ventricular
arrhythmias. IV potassium replacement is urgent because oral intake is too slow and unreliable. Holding
furosemide may be considered but does not address the immediate deficit; spironolactone is a
potassium-sparing diuretic but takes hours to act and is not appropriate for acute correction.
Why Wrong:
B - Holding furosemide does not correct existing hypokalemia and may worsen pulmonary edema.
C - Oral potassium replacement is too slow for acute, severe hypokalemia in a critically ill patient.
D - Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic but has a slow onset and is not indicated for acute
hypokalemia correction.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th ed., Ch. 39, pp. 456-458.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) on
volume-controlled mechanical ventilation. Plateau pressure is 32 cm H2O, and PaO2 is 58 mm Hg
on FiO2 0.6. Which intervention should the nurse question?
A. Administering a neuromuscular blocking agent per protocol
B. Increasing PEEP to 15 cm H2O
C. Decreasing tidal volume to 5 mL/kg ideal body weight
D. Administering a bolus of normal saline for hypotension
Correct Answer: D. Administering a bolus of normal saline for hypotension
Rationale: In ARDS, fluid management should be restrictive to avoid worsening pulmonary edema. A
saline bolus for hypotension may increase hydrostatic pressure and exacerbate edema. Neuromuscular
blockade, higher PEEP, and low tidal volume ventilation are standard lung-protective strategies.
Reference: Urden, L.D., et al. (2026). Critical Care Nursing: Diagnosis and Management, 9th ed., Ch.
18.
Page 3
, Q3. A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 4 has a serum phosphorus of 6.8 mg/dL and calcium
of 8.2 mg/dL. The nurse administers calcium acetate 1334 mg orally with meals. Which laboratory
finding indicates an adverse effect requiring immediate intervention?
A. Serum calcium 10.5 mg/dL
B. Serum phosphorus 5.0 mg/dL
C. Serum magnesium 2.4 mg/dL
D. Serum potassium 5.1 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A. Serum calcium 10.5 mg/dL
Rationale: Calcium acetate binds phosphate but can cause hypercalcemia, especially if calcium levels are
already low-normal. A serum calcium of 10.5 mg/dL is above normal and may lead to cardiac
arrhythmias or vascular calcification. The goal is to control phosphorus without causing hypercalcemia.
Why Wrong:
B - Phosphorus 5.0 mg/dL is still elevated but not an adverse effect of calcium acetate; it indicates
the medication is working.
C - Magnesium 2.4 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not directly related to calcium acetate therapy.
D - Potassium 5.1 mEq/L is mildly elevated but not an adverse effect of calcium acetate; it may be
due to CKD.
Reference: Karch, A.M. (2026). Focus on Nursing Pharmacology, 9th ed., Ch. 56.
Q4. A nurse is teaching a patient about self-administration of enoxaparin 40 mg subcutaneously
daily after hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. I will inject the medication into my abdomen, at least 2 inches from my belly button.
B. I should not rub the injection site after giving the shot.
C. I will aspirate the syringe before injecting to check for blood return.
D. I will rotate injection sites between the left and right sides of my abdomen.
Correct Answer: C. I will aspirate the syringe before injecting to check for blood return.
Rationale: Aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous heparin injections because it can cause
tissue trauma and hematoma formation. The other statements are correct: abdominal injection at least 2
inches from the umbilicus, no rubbing, and site rotation are standard.
Reference: Skidmore-Roth, L. (2026). Mosby's Drug Guide for Nursing Students, 15th ed., p. 432.
Page 4
Prep Document | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I (MDC I) Final Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document contains 250 verified questions and answers for the
NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I (MDC I) final exam at Rasmussen University, updated for the
2026/2027 academic year. It covers key concepts in multidimensional patient care, including health
promotion, disease prevention, and management of common health alterations across the lifespan.
Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and rationale to reinforce learning and critical
thinking. This resource is designed to help nursing students achieve a thorough understanding of MDC
I content and excel on their final exam.
Key Features:
Health Promotion and Disease Prevention Strategies
Management of Acute and Chronic Health Alterations
Pharmacological and Non-Pharmacological Interventions
Patient Education and Communication Techniques
Safety and Infection Control Principles
Cultural and Ethical Considerations in Care
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 Rasmussen University curriculum changes
- Revised rationales to align with latest evidence-based practice guidelines
- Added new questions on emerging health issues and treatments
- Enhanced distractors to better simulate exam difficulty
- Reorganized content areas for improved study flow
Abstract:
This document provides a rigorous review of NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I, a core nursing course at
Rasmussen University. The 250 questions are meticulously crafted to mirror the final exam format, covering
essential topics such as health promotion, disease prevention, and management of common health alterations
across the lifespan. Each question includes a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying
pathophysiology, nursing interventions, and evidence-based practice. The content is organized into key content
areas with specified question ranges and weights, allowing students to focus their study efforts efficiently. This
resource is an indispensable tool for nursing students seeking to consolidate their knowledge and achieve a high
level of exam readiness. By engaging with these questions, students will develop critical thinking skills and clinical
judgment necessary for safe and effective patient care. The document is updated for the 2026/2027 academic year
to ensure relevance and accuracy.
Keywords:
NUR 2356, Multidimensional Care I, MDC I, Rasmussen University, Nursing Exam Prep, 250 Questions,
Evidence-Based Practice, Health Alterations
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with four options. The correct answer is clearly indicated,
followed by a concise rationale that explains why it is correct and why the other options are incorrect. Rationales
include relevant pathophysiology, nursing interventions, and references to standard nursing textbooks.
Compliance Checklist:
Page 1
, All questions aligned with NUR 2356 course objectives
Answers verified by subject matter experts
Rationales cite evidence-based practice guidelines
Content reflects 2026/2027 curriculum updates
Questions reviewed for clarity and accuracy
Suitable for self-assessment and exam review
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health Promotion and Disease 1-50 Screening guidelines, immunizations, 20%
Prevention lifestyle modifications, risk factor reduction,
primary/secondary/tertiary prevention
Acute and Chronic Health 51-120 Cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, 28%
Alterations gastrointestinal, renal disorders; acute vs.
chronic management; complications
Pharmacological and 121-170 Drug classifications, side effects, 20%
Non-Pharmacological interactions, patient teaching;
Interventions complementary therapies; pain management
Patient Education and 171-210 Health literacy, teaching strategies, cultural 16%
Communication competence, therapeutic communication,
informed consent
Safety and Infection Control 211-240 Standard precautions, isolation, fall 12%
prevention, medication safety, error
reporting, infection prevention
Ethical and Legal Considerations 241-250 Patient rights, confidentiality, advance 4%
directives, ethical dilemmas, scope of
practice
Page 2
,Q1. A patient receiving furosemide 40 mg IV push for acute pulmonary edema has a urine output of
250 mL over the past 2 hours. The nurse notes a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. Which intervention
is most appropriate to prevent a life-threatening complication?
A. Administer potassium chloride 10 mEq IV over 1 hour
B. Hold the next dose of furosemide until potassium normalizes
C. Encourage high-potassium foods such as bananas and oranges
D. Administer spironolactone 25 mg orally now
Correct Answer: A. Administer potassium chloride 10 mEq IV over 1 hour
Rationale: Severe hypokalemia (3.2 mEq/L) in a patient on loop diuretics predisposes to ventricular
arrhythmias. IV potassium replacement is urgent because oral intake is too slow and unreliable. Holding
furosemide may be considered but does not address the immediate deficit; spironolactone is a
potassium-sparing diuretic but takes hours to act and is not appropriate for acute correction.
Why Wrong:
B - Holding furosemide does not correct existing hypokalemia and may worsen pulmonary edema.
C - Oral potassium replacement is too slow for acute, severe hypokalemia in a critically ill patient.
D - Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic but has a slow onset and is not indicated for acute
hypokalemia correction.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th ed., Ch. 39, pp. 456-458.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) on
volume-controlled mechanical ventilation. Plateau pressure is 32 cm H2O, and PaO2 is 58 mm Hg
on FiO2 0.6. Which intervention should the nurse question?
A. Administering a neuromuscular blocking agent per protocol
B. Increasing PEEP to 15 cm H2O
C. Decreasing tidal volume to 5 mL/kg ideal body weight
D. Administering a bolus of normal saline for hypotension
Correct Answer: D. Administering a bolus of normal saline for hypotension
Rationale: In ARDS, fluid management should be restrictive to avoid worsening pulmonary edema. A
saline bolus for hypotension may increase hydrostatic pressure and exacerbate edema. Neuromuscular
blockade, higher PEEP, and low tidal volume ventilation are standard lung-protective strategies.
Reference: Urden, L.D., et al. (2026). Critical Care Nursing: Diagnosis and Management, 9th ed., Ch.
18.
Page 3
, Q3. A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 4 has a serum phosphorus of 6.8 mg/dL and calcium
of 8.2 mg/dL. The nurse administers calcium acetate 1334 mg orally with meals. Which laboratory
finding indicates an adverse effect requiring immediate intervention?
A. Serum calcium 10.5 mg/dL
B. Serum phosphorus 5.0 mg/dL
C. Serum magnesium 2.4 mg/dL
D. Serum potassium 5.1 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A. Serum calcium 10.5 mg/dL
Rationale: Calcium acetate binds phosphate but can cause hypercalcemia, especially if calcium levels are
already low-normal. A serum calcium of 10.5 mg/dL is above normal and may lead to cardiac
arrhythmias or vascular calcification. The goal is to control phosphorus without causing hypercalcemia.
Why Wrong:
B - Phosphorus 5.0 mg/dL is still elevated but not an adverse effect of calcium acetate; it indicates
the medication is working.
C - Magnesium 2.4 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not directly related to calcium acetate therapy.
D - Potassium 5.1 mEq/L is mildly elevated but not an adverse effect of calcium acetate; it may be
due to CKD.
Reference: Karch, A.M. (2026). Focus on Nursing Pharmacology, 9th ed., Ch. 56.
Q4. A nurse is teaching a patient about self-administration of enoxaparin 40 mg subcutaneously
daily after hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. I will inject the medication into my abdomen, at least 2 inches from my belly button.
B. I should not rub the injection site after giving the shot.
C. I will aspirate the syringe before injecting to check for blood return.
D. I will rotate injection sites between the left and right sides of my abdomen.
Correct Answer: C. I will aspirate the syringe before injecting to check for blood return.
Rationale: Aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous heparin injections because it can cause
tissue trauma and hematoma formation. The other statements are correct: abdominal injection at least 2
inches from the umbilicus, no rubbing, and site rotation are standard.
Reference: Skidmore-Roth, L. (2026). Mosby's Drug Guide for Nursing Students, 15th ed., p. 432.
Page 4
