NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Exam
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063
(Newest 2026/2027)
Pathophysiology Rasmussen /
Actual Exam Questions & Correct,
Certified Solutions 2026/2027
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology Neurological & Endocrine Disorders
Cardiovascular & Respiratory Disorders Immune & Inflammatory Responses
Renal & Fluid/Electrolyte Imbalances
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 20
Q1 Question 1 of 75
Q1. A 58-year-old male presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. Lab studies reveal a defective
sodium-potassium ATPase pump in his skeletal muscle cells. The nurse understands that this active transport
mechanism is essential for maintaining cellular homeostasis. What is the primary consequence of pump
failure in these cells?
A. Intracellular sodium accumulation leading to cellular swelling
B. Excessive potassium retention inside the cell
C. Immediate rupture of the plasma membrane
D. Increased production of adenosine triphosphate
Correct Answer: A - Intracellular sodium accumulation leading to cellular swelling
Rationale:
The Na+/K+ ATPase pumps three sodium ions out and two potassium ions in; failure causes intracellular sodium
accumulation, drawing water osmotically into the cell and producing hydropic swelling. Potassium leaks out rather than
accumulating. The membrane does not rupture immediately, and ATP production falls rather than rising.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
Q2. A pathologist examining a tissue specimen from a surgically removed tumor notes cells undergoing
programmed cell death with chromatin condensation, membrane blebbing, and intact organelles. The patient
is a 64-year-old woman with breast cancer undergoing chemotherapy. Which cellular process is most
accurately described by these findings?
A. Coagulative necrosis with random DNA degradation
B. Apoptosis mediated by caspase enzyme cascade
C. Liquefactive necrosis with neutrophil infiltration
D. Fat necrosis with saponification
Correct Answer: B - Apoptosis mediated by caspase enzyme cascade
Rationale:
Chromatin condensation, membrane blebbing, and apoptotic bodies are hallmark features of apoptosis, an
energy-dependent process executed by caspases. Necrosis produces random DNA degradation and inflammation, while
liquefactive and fat necrosis involve neutrophil digestion and saponification respectively. Chemotherapy commonly triggers
apoptosis in rapidly dividing tumor cells.
Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 42
,SECTION 1 | Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 20
Q3 Question 3 of 75
Q3. A 45-year-old weightlifter exhibits marked enlargement of his biceps muscles after years of training. A
muscle biopsy shows increased cell size without an increase in cell number. The clinical instructor asks the
student nurse to identify the specific cellular adaptation occurring. Which adaptation best describes this
response?
A. Hyperplasia from increased cell division
B. Metaplasia from chronic irritation
C. Hypertrophy from increased cell size
D. Dysplasia from disordered growth
Correct Answer: C - Hypertrophy from increased cell size
Rationale:
Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size without an increase in cell number, classically seen in skeletal muscle response to
mechanical stress. Hyperplasia involves increased cell number, metaplasia is reversible cell type replacement, and
dysplasia is disordered premalignant growth. The biopsy confirming larger cells without more cells rules out hyperplasia.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
Q4. A 72-year-old man with longstanding type 2 diabetes develops accelerated atherosclerosis. Cellular
analysis reveals excessive reactive oxygen species damaging endothelial cell membranes, proteins, and
DNA. The pathophysiology instructor asks which organelle is most vulnerable to free radical lipid peroxidation
injury. What is the correct response?
A. Nucleus with chromatin clumping
B. Mitochondrial matrix enzymes
C. Lysosomal hydrolytic enzymes
D. Cell membrane phospholipid bilayer
Correct Answer: D - Cell membrane phospholipid bilayer
Rationale:
Free radicals initiate lipid peroxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids in the cell membrane, destroying membrane integrity
and permeability. While nuclei, mitochondria, and lysosomes can be secondarily damaged, the phospholipid bilayer is the
primary target because of its abundant unsaturated bonds. Antioxidant defenses like superoxide dismutase normally
neutralize these species.
Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 42
, SECTION 1 | Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 20
Q5 Question 5 of 75
Q5. A 35-year-old patient sustained a spinal cord injury six months ago resulting in lower extremity paralysis.
Physical examination reveals markedly atrophied leg muscles with reduced mass. The nurse recognizes this
as a specific form of cellular atrophy. What is the most likely underlying mechanism for the muscle wasting in
this patient?
A. Denervation atrophy from loss of trophic signals
B. Disuse atrophy from prolonged bed rest
C. Endocrine atrophy from cortisol excess
D. Nutritional atrophy from starvation
Correct Answer: A - Denervation atrophy from loss of trophic signals
Rationale:
Denervation atrophy occurs when nerve impulses and trophic factors are lost, as seen after spinal cord injury paralyzing
muscle groups. Disuse atrophy would occur with immobilization but intact innervation. Endocrine atrophy results from
hormonal deficiency or excess, and nutritional atrophy stems from protein-calorie deprivation. Paralysis from cord injury
specifically indicates denervation.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
Q6. A 51-year-old man with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease undergoes endoscopy showing
replacement of normal squamous esophageal epithelium with columnar glandular epithelium in the distal
esophagus. Biopsy confirms intestinal metaplasia. The patient asks how this adaptation occurred. Which
mechanism best explains the cellular change?
A. Genetic mutation causing malignant transformation
B. Reprogramming of stem cells to a different cell type
C. Apoptosis of squamous cells leaving glands
D. Acute inflammation recruiting new cells
Correct Answer: B - Reprogramming of stem cells to a different cell type
Rationale:
Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one adult cell type with another through reprogramming of stem cells, driven by
chronic irritation such as acid reflux. It is adaptive, not malignant, though Barrett's esophagus carries premalignant risk.
Apoptosis alone cannot produce glandular cells, and acute inflammation does not change cell identity. The reprogramming
is genetic reprogramming, not mutation.
Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 42
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063
(Newest 2026/2027)
Pathophysiology Rasmussen /
Actual Exam Questions & Correct,
Certified Solutions 2026/2027
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology Neurological & Endocrine Disorders
Cardiovascular & Respiratory Disorders Immune & Inflammatory Responses
Renal & Fluid/Electrolyte Imbalances
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 20
Q1 Question 1 of 75
Q1. A 58-year-old male presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. Lab studies reveal a defective
sodium-potassium ATPase pump in his skeletal muscle cells. The nurse understands that this active transport
mechanism is essential for maintaining cellular homeostasis. What is the primary consequence of pump
failure in these cells?
A. Intracellular sodium accumulation leading to cellular swelling
B. Excessive potassium retention inside the cell
C. Immediate rupture of the plasma membrane
D. Increased production of adenosine triphosphate
Correct Answer: A - Intracellular sodium accumulation leading to cellular swelling
Rationale:
The Na+/K+ ATPase pumps three sodium ions out and two potassium ions in; failure causes intracellular sodium
accumulation, drawing water osmotically into the cell and producing hydropic swelling. Potassium leaks out rather than
accumulating. The membrane does not rupture immediately, and ATP production falls rather than rising.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
Q2. A pathologist examining a tissue specimen from a surgically removed tumor notes cells undergoing
programmed cell death with chromatin condensation, membrane blebbing, and intact organelles. The patient
is a 64-year-old woman with breast cancer undergoing chemotherapy. Which cellular process is most
accurately described by these findings?
A. Coagulative necrosis with random DNA degradation
B. Apoptosis mediated by caspase enzyme cascade
C. Liquefactive necrosis with neutrophil infiltration
D. Fat necrosis with saponification
Correct Answer: B - Apoptosis mediated by caspase enzyme cascade
Rationale:
Chromatin condensation, membrane blebbing, and apoptotic bodies are hallmark features of apoptosis, an
energy-dependent process executed by caspases. Necrosis produces random DNA degradation and inflammation, while
liquefactive and fat necrosis involve neutrophil digestion and saponification respectively. Chemotherapy commonly triggers
apoptosis in rapidly dividing tumor cells.
Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 42
,SECTION 1 | Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 20
Q3 Question 3 of 75
Q3. A 45-year-old weightlifter exhibits marked enlargement of his biceps muscles after years of training. A
muscle biopsy shows increased cell size without an increase in cell number. The clinical instructor asks the
student nurse to identify the specific cellular adaptation occurring. Which adaptation best describes this
response?
A. Hyperplasia from increased cell division
B. Metaplasia from chronic irritation
C. Hypertrophy from increased cell size
D. Dysplasia from disordered growth
Correct Answer: C - Hypertrophy from increased cell size
Rationale:
Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size without an increase in cell number, classically seen in skeletal muscle response to
mechanical stress. Hyperplasia involves increased cell number, metaplasia is reversible cell type replacement, and
dysplasia is disordered premalignant growth. The biopsy confirming larger cells without more cells rules out hyperplasia.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
Q4. A 72-year-old man with longstanding type 2 diabetes develops accelerated atherosclerosis. Cellular
analysis reveals excessive reactive oxygen species damaging endothelial cell membranes, proteins, and
DNA. The pathophysiology instructor asks which organelle is most vulnerable to free radical lipid peroxidation
injury. What is the correct response?
A. Nucleus with chromatin clumping
B. Mitochondrial matrix enzymes
C. Lysosomal hydrolytic enzymes
D. Cell membrane phospholipid bilayer
Correct Answer: D - Cell membrane phospholipid bilayer
Rationale:
Free radicals initiate lipid peroxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids in the cell membrane, destroying membrane integrity
and permeability. While nuclei, mitochondria, and lysosomes can be secondarily damaged, the phospholipid bilayer is the
primary target because of its abundant unsaturated bonds. Antioxidant defenses like superoxide dismutase normally
neutralize these species.
Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 42
, SECTION 1 | Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology | Q1-Q15 | Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 20
Q5 Question 5 of 75
Q5. A 35-year-old patient sustained a spinal cord injury six months ago resulting in lower extremity paralysis.
Physical examination reveals markedly atrophied leg muscles with reduced mass. The nurse recognizes this
as a specific form of cellular atrophy. What is the most likely underlying mechanism for the muscle wasting in
this patient?
A. Denervation atrophy from loss of trophic signals
B. Disuse atrophy from prolonged bed rest
C. Endocrine atrophy from cortisol excess
D. Nutritional atrophy from starvation
Correct Answer: A - Denervation atrophy from loss of trophic signals
Rationale:
Denervation atrophy occurs when nerve impulses and trophic factors are lost, as seen after spinal cord injury paralyzing
muscle groups. Disuse atrophy would occur with immobilization but intact innervation. Endocrine atrophy results from
hormonal deficiency or excess, and nutritional atrophy stems from protein-calorie deprivation. Paralysis from cord injury
specifically indicates denervation.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
Q6. A 51-year-old man with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease undergoes endoscopy showing
replacement of normal squamous esophageal epithelium with columnar glandular epithelium in the distal
esophagus. Biopsy confirms intestinal metaplasia. The patient asks how this adaptation occurred. Which
mechanism best explains the cellular change?
A. Genetic mutation causing malignant transformation
B. Reprogramming of stem cells to a different cell type
C. Apoptosis of squamous cells leaving glands
D. Acute inflammation recruiting new cells
Correct Answer: B - Reprogramming of stem cells to a different cell type
Rationale:
Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one adult cell type with another through reprogramming of stem cells, driven by
chronic irritation such as acid reflux. It is adaptive, not malignant, though Barrett's esophagus carries premalignant risk.
Apoptosis alone cannot produce glandular cells, and acute inflammation does not change cell identity. The reprogramming
is genetic reprogramming, not mutation.
Final Exam # 3 NUR 2063 / NUR 2063 (Newest 2026/2027) Pathophysiology Rasmussen / Actual Exam Questions & Correct, Certified Solutions 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 42
