,NSG 550 Exam 1 | Diagnostic Reasoning for NP
(2026) Actual Q&A PDF | Wilkes
1. In diagnostic testing, the term that describes a test’s ability to correctly
identify individuals who have a disease is:
A) Sensitivity
B) Specificity
C) Positive predictive value
D) Negative predictive value
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Rationale: Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN); it measures how well a test picks up
disease. A highly sensitive test has few false negatives and is good for screening.
Specificity identifies those without disease.
2. Specificity refers to a test’s ability to correctly identify:
A) Patients who have the disease
B) Patients who do not have the disease
C) The likelihood that a positive test is a true positive
D) The likelihood that a negative test is a true negative
Correct Answer: Patients who do not have the disease
Rationale: Specificity = TN/(TN+FP). A highly specific test has few false positives
and is useful for confirming a diagnosis (SpPin – Specificity rules in).
,3. A screening test with high sensitivity is most useful to:
A) Confirm a diagnosis
B) Rule out a disease
C) Increase specificity
D) Reduce the need for treatment
Correct Answer: Rule out a disease
Rationale: High sensitivity means a negative result reliably excludes the disease
(SnNout – Sensitivity rules out). This is ideal for screening tests to ensure few
cases are missed.
4. Which factor directly influences the positive predictive value of a test?
A) The specificity of the test
B) The prevalence of the disease in the population
C) The cost of the test
D) The turnaround time
Correct Answer: The prevalence of the disease in the population
Rationale: PPV increases as disease prevalence rises. Even a highly specific test
will have many false positives when prevalence is low. NPV is also affected by
prevalence.
5. An example of primary prevention is:
, A) Annual mammography
B) Blood pressure screening
C) Immunization against influenza
D) Cardiac rehabilitation after MI
Correct Answer: Immunization against influenza
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs.
Immunizations, lifestyle counseling, and smoking cessation are primary.
Screening is secondary; rehab is tertiary.
6. A 55‑year‑old woman is encouraged to have a screening colonoscopy. This is
an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health promotion
Correct Answer: Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention detects disease early when it is more
treatable. Colonoscopy can identify and remove precancerous polyps,
preventing cancer.
7. Tertiary prevention focuses on:
A) Preventing disease before it occurs
(2026) Actual Q&A PDF | Wilkes
1. In diagnostic testing, the term that describes a test’s ability to correctly
identify individuals who have a disease is:
A) Sensitivity
B) Specificity
C) Positive predictive value
D) Negative predictive value
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Rationale: Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN); it measures how well a test picks up
disease. A highly sensitive test has few false negatives and is good for screening.
Specificity identifies those without disease.
2. Specificity refers to a test’s ability to correctly identify:
A) Patients who have the disease
B) Patients who do not have the disease
C) The likelihood that a positive test is a true positive
D) The likelihood that a negative test is a true negative
Correct Answer: Patients who do not have the disease
Rationale: Specificity = TN/(TN+FP). A highly specific test has few false positives
and is useful for confirming a diagnosis (SpPin – Specificity rules in).
,3. A screening test with high sensitivity is most useful to:
A) Confirm a diagnosis
B) Rule out a disease
C) Increase specificity
D) Reduce the need for treatment
Correct Answer: Rule out a disease
Rationale: High sensitivity means a negative result reliably excludes the disease
(SnNout – Sensitivity rules out). This is ideal for screening tests to ensure few
cases are missed.
4. Which factor directly influences the positive predictive value of a test?
A) The specificity of the test
B) The prevalence of the disease in the population
C) The cost of the test
D) The turnaround time
Correct Answer: The prevalence of the disease in the population
Rationale: PPV increases as disease prevalence rises. Even a highly specific test
will have many false positives when prevalence is low. NPV is also affected by
prevalence.
5. An example of primary prevention is:
, A) Annual mammography
B) Blood pressure screening
C) Immunization against influenza
D) Cardiac rehabilitation after MI
Correct Answer: Immunization against influenza
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs.
Immunizations, lifestyle counseling, and smoking cessation are primary.
Screening is secondary; rehab is tertiary.
6. A 55‑year‑old woman is encouraged to have a screening colonoscopy. This is
an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health promotion
Correct Answer: Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention detects disease early when it is more
treatable. Colonoscopy can identify and remove precancerous polyps,
preventing cancer.
7. Tertiary prevention focuses on:
A) Preventing disease before it occurs
