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NUR 6130 Exam 3 V3 | NUR 6130 Advanced Practice Nursing III | Q&A with Rationale (NUR6130 Exam 3) | William Paterson University

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NUR 6130 Exam 3 V3 | NUR 6130 Advanced Practice Nursing III | Q&A with Rationale (NUR6130 Exam 3) | William Paterson University

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NUR 6130 Exam 3 V3 | NUR 6130
Advanced Practice Nursing III | Q&A with
Rationale (NUR6130 Exam 3) | William
Paterson University
1. An 18-year-old female presents for her first gynecological exam and asks about cervical

cancer screening. Based on current ACOG and USPSTF guidelines, what is the most

appropriate recommendation?

A. Initiate Pap smear screening now as she is sexually active.


B. Screen with HPV co-testing starting at age 21.


C. Perform a Pap smear every 5 years starting at age 18.


D. Delay cervical cancer screening until the age of 21 regardless of sexual activity.


Answer: D


Rationale: Current clinical guidelines recommend that cervical cancer screening begin at

age 21, regardless of the age of sexual debut. This recommendation aims to prevent

unnecessary procedures on the adolescent cervix, which often undergoes transient HPV

infections that resolve spontaneously. Evidence shows that screening before 21 does not

lead to a decrease in cancer incidence but increases the risk of over-treatment of benign

lesions.

,2. A 52-year-old woman complains of hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. She has

an intact uterus. Which hormone therapy regimen is most appropriate for her symptoms?

A. Estrogen-only therapy (ET).


B. High-dose oral contraceptives.


C. Testosterone supplementation.


D. Combined estrogen and progestogen therapy (EPT).


Answer: D


Rationale: For women with an intact uterus, systemic estrogen must be paired with a

progestogen to prevent endometrial hyperplasia and the subsequent risk of endometrial

cancer. Estrogen-only therapy is reserved specifically for women who have undergone a

hysterectomy. This combination treatment effectively manages vasomotor symptoms while

protecting the integrity of the uterine lining.


3. A mother brings in her 4-year-old son with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor that

worsens at night. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A. Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)


B. Bacterial Tracheitis


C. Epiglottitis


D. Foreign body aspiration


Answer: A

,Rationale: Laryngotracheobronchitis, commonly known as Croup, is characterized by the

classic barking cough and inspiratory stridor due to upper airway inflammation. It typically

follows a viral prodrome and is most prevalent in children aged 6 months to 3 years.

Management often involves a single dose of dexamethasone to reduce subglottic edema

and improve respiratory effort.


4. Which of the following is considered the ‘gold standard’ for diagnosing Polycystic Ovary

Syndrome (PCOS) according to the Rotterdam criteria?

A. Elevated serum cortisol and weight gain.


B. A single finding of an enlarged ovary during a pelvic exam.


C. Elevated prolactin levels and bilateral galactorrhea.


D. Presence of at least two: oligo-ovulation/anovulation, clinical/biochemical

hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.


Answer: D


Rationale: The Rotterdam criteria require the presence of at least two out of the three

specified conditions for a PCOS diagnosis. These conditions include ovulatory dysfunction,

signs of androgen excess, and characteristic ovarian morphology on imaging. Using this

standardized approach ensures that other endocrine disorders, such as congenital adrenal

hyperplasia, are ruled out before confirming PCOS.

, 5. A 28-year-old pregnant patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of

155/95 mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Gestational Hypertension


B. Preeclampsia


C. Chronic Hypertension


D. Eclampsia


Answer: B


Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined by the new onset of hypertension (BP >140/90) and

proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman. It is a

multisystem disorder that requires close monitoring of both the mother and the fetus for

signs of progression to severe features. If the patient were to experience seizures, the

diagnosis would then shift to eclampsia.


6. When assessing a 12-month-old child during a well-visit, which developmental milestone

should the child have typically achieved?

A. Walking alone or with one hand held.


B. Speaking in 3-word sentences.


C. Copying a circle with a crayon.


D. Hopping on one foot.


Answer: A

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