NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
ACTUAL EXAM | CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY |
FINAL EXAM | VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT | PASS
GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
Section 1: Neurological System (Stroke, Seizures, Degenerative Disorders,
CNS Trauma)
Q1: A patient is brought to the ER with sudden onset of severe “thunderclap”
headache and nuchal rigidity. A CT scan reveals blood in the subarachnoid space.
Which pathophysiologic mechanism is the most likely cause?
A. Rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm [CORRECT]
B. Thrombotic occlusion of the middle cerebral artery
C. Rupture of an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
D. Lacunar infarct due to hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A “thunderclap” headache is the classic presentation of a subarachnoid
hemorrhage (SAH). The most common cause of non-traumatic SAH is the rupture
of a saccular (berry) aneurysm, typically at bifurcations in the Circle of Willis.
Thrombotic occlusion causes ischemic stroke (no blood on CT), and AVMs are a
less common cause of SAH compared to aneurysms.
,Q2: A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with right-sided
hemiplegia and aphasia. The pathophysiology of this type of stroke is best
described as:
A. Thrombotic occlusion due to atherosclerosis
B. Embolic occlusion originating from the heart [CORRECT]
C. Lacunar infarct due to lipohyalinosis
D. Hemorrhagic transformation of an ischemic event
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation causes stasis of blood in the atria (specifically the left
atrial appendage), leading to thrombus formation. If the clot dislodges, it travels to
the cerebral circulation, causing an embolic stroke. This typically presents with
sudden onset of maximal deficit, distinguishing it from the stuttering course of
thrombotic strokes.
Q3: Which pathophysiologic process explains the development of “cytotoxic
cerebral edema" following a traumatic brain injury?
A. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier allowing protein leakage
,B. Failure of the sodium-potassium pump leading to intracellular water
accumulation [CORRECT]
C. Obstruction of CSF flow by a mass
D. Increased production of cerebrospinal fluid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cytotoxic edema occurs when ischemia or trauma causes cellular energy
failure (ATP depletion). This disables the Na+/K+ pump, allowing sodium (and
consequently water) to enter the cell, causing neuronal and glial swelling.
Vasogenic edema (Option A) involves vessel leakage into the interstitial space.
Q4: A patient is diagnosed with Parkinson disease. The primary neurotransmitter
deficiency responsible for the motor symptoms (tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia) is:
A. Acetylcholine in the basal ganglia
B. Dopamine in the substantia nigra [CORRECT]
C. GABA in the motor cortex
D. Serotonin in the raphe nuclei
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson disease is characterized by the degeneration of dopaminergic
neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta. The loss of dopamine leads to an
imbalance between the direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia, resulting
in excessive inhibitory output to the thalamus and the hallmark hypokinetic
movement disorder.
Q5: A patient with a known brain tumor develops “Cushing triad” (hypertension,
bradycardia, irregular respirations). This indicates:
A. Herniation of the brainstem [CORRECT]
B. Focal seizure activity
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Meningeal irritation
Correct Answer: A
ACTUAL EXAM | CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY |
FINAL EXAM | VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT | PASS
GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
Section 1: Neurological System (Stroke, Seizures, Degenerative Disorders,
CNS Trauma)
Q1: A patient is brought to the ER with sudden onset of severe “thunderclap”
headache and nuchal rigidity. A CT scan reveals blood in the subarachnoid space.
Which pathophysiologic mechanism is the most likely cause?
A. Rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm [CORRECT]
B. Thrombotic occlusion of the middle cerebral artery
C. Rupture of an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
D. Lacunar infarct due to hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A “thunderclap” headache is the classic presentation of a subarachnoid
hemorrhage (SAH). The most common cause of non-traumatic SAH is the rupture
of a saccular (berry) aneurysm, typically at bifurcations in the Circle of Willis.
Thrombotic occlusion causes ischemic stroke (no blood on CT), and AVMs are a
less common cause of SAH compared to aneurysms.
,Q2: A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with right-sided
hemiplegia and aphasia. The pathophysiology of this type of stroke is best
described as:
A. Thrombotic occlusion due to atherosclerosis
B. Embolic occlusion originating from the heart [CORRECT]
C. Lacunar infarct due to lipohyalinosis
D. Hemorrhagic transformation of an ischemic event
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation causes stasis of blood in the atria (specifically the left
atrial appendage), leading to thrombus formation. If the clot dislodges, it travels to
the cerebral circulation, causing an embolic stroke. This typically presents with
sudden onset of maximal deficit, distinguishing it from the stuttering course of
thrombotic strokes.
Q3: Which pathophysiologic process explains the development of “cytotoxic
cerebral edema" following a traumatic brain injury?
A. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier allowing protein leakage
,B. Failure of the sodium-potassium pump leading to intracellular water
accumulation [CORRECT]
C. Obstruction of CSF flow by a mass
D. Increased production of cerebrospinal fluid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cytotoxic edema occurs when ischemia or trauma causes cellular energy
failure (ATP depletion). This disables the Na+/K+ pump, allowing sodium (and
consequently water) to enter the cell, causing neuronal and glial swelling.
Vasogenic edema (Option A) involves vessel leakage into the interstitial space.
Q4: A patient is diagnosed with Parkinson disease. The primary neurotransmitter
deficiency responsible for the motor symptoms (tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia) is:
A. Acetylcholine in the basal ganglia
B. Dopamine in the substantia nigra [CORRECT]
C. GABA in the motor cortex
D. Serotonin in the raphe nuclei
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson disease is characterized by the degeneration of dopaminergic
neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta. The loss of dopamine leads to an
imbalance between the direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia, resulting
in excessive inhibitory output to the thalamus and the hallmark hypokinetic
movement disorder.
Q5: A patient with a known brain tumor develops “Cushing triad” (hypertension,
bradycardia, irregular respirations). This indicates:
A. Herniation of the brainstem [CORRECT]
B. Focal seizure activity
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Meningeal irritation
Correct Answer: A
