California Certified Engineering Geologist (CEG) Exam
2026 – 150 Practice Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales –Instant Download PDF
Complete CEG Study Guide Covering Seismic Hazards, Fault Rupture,
Liquefaction, Slope Stability, Landslides, Expansive & Collapsible Soils,
Groundwater & Drainage, CBC & CGS SP 117A, Alquist-Priolo Act, DWR
Bulletin 74, Site Characterization, Professional Practice & Ethics for BPELSG
CEG Licensure
Section 1 – Seismic & Fault-Rupture Hazards (Q1–25)
1. According to CGS Special Publication 117A, what is the minimum acceptable
factor of safety against liquefaction for critical structures in California?
A. 1.0
B. 1.1
C. 1.3
D. 1.5
SP 117A typically requires FS ≥ 1.3 for liquefaction evaluation in seismic hazard analyses.
2. Under the Alquist-Priolo Earthquake Fault Zoning Act, the primary purpose of the
Earthquake Fault Zones is to:
A. Regulate groundwater extraction
B. Prohibit certain types of construction directly on active fault traces
C. Require seismic retrofitting of all buildings
D. Establish building height limits
The Act focuses on preventing new structures from being built directly on active fault traces.
,3. Which geologic feature is most commonly used to define an “active fault” for
Alquist-Priolo zoning purposes?
A. Any fault with measurable displacement
B. A fault that has had surface displacement within the Holocene
C. Any fault shown on a regional map
D. A fault with recorded instrumental seismicity only
Alquist-Priolo generally uses Holocene activity as the criterion for “active.”
4. A proposed school site lies within an Earthquake Fault Zone. Boring data show a
steeply dipping fault with Holocene offset. What is the most appropriate first
recommendation?
A. Proceed with normal foundation design
B. Conduct a detailed fault-rupture hazard evaluation per CGS guidelines
C. Ignore the fault because it is small
D. Recommend only shallow foundations
Fault-rupture hazard evaluation is required when active faults are present.
5. For a site near a known active fault, which parameter is most critical for estimating
potential fault-rupture displacement at the surface?
A. Soil density
B. Fault slip rate and recurrence interval
C. Groundwater level
D. Vegetation type
Slip rate and recurrence help bound potential displacement and hazard.
6. In seismic hazard evaluations, the term “maximum credible earthquake” (MCE)
primarily refers to:
A. The largest historical earthquake in the region
B. The largest earthquake reasonably capable of occurring on a fault or source
C. The earthquake with the longest duration
D. The earthquake that causes the most damage historically
,MCE is a deterministic estimate of the largest plausible event.
7. A geologic map shows a Quaternary fault that offsets late Pleistocene deposits but
has no Holocene evidence. How is this fault typically classified for Alquist-Priolo
purposes?
A. Active fault
B. Potentially active fault (not in an Earthquake Fault Zone unless designated)
C. Inactive fault
D. Not a fault
Only Holocene-active faults are “active” for Alquist-Priolo zoning.
8. Which of the following site conditions most increases the likelihood of ground
amplification during an earthquake?
A. Hard rock near the surface
B. Thick, soft alluvial deposits over bedrock
C. Shallow bedrock with no overburden
D. Dense, dry sand
Soft soils over stiff layers amplify seismic waves.
9. For a large dam project in California, which seismic design consideration is most
directly influenced by engineering geology input?
A. Architectural style
B. Selection of design ground motions based on fault sources and site conditions
C. Paint color
D. Landscaping plan
Geologists help define fault sources, distances, and site class for ground motion selection.
10. A site is underlain by loose, saturated sands at depths of 5–15 m. The regional
seismicity is moderate to high. Which hazard is most concerning?
, A. Expansive soil
B. Liquefaction
C. Rockfall
D. Karst collapse
Loose, saturated sands in seismic areas are prone to liquefaction.
11. Which investigation method is most appropriate for初步 evaluation of
liquefaction potential at a large site?
A. Only surface mapping
B. Standard Penetration Test (SPT) borings with groundwater monitoring
C. Only remote sensing
D. Test pits only
SPT data (with corrections) are widely used in liquefaction analyses.
12. In a liquefaction analysis, the factor of safety is primarily a function of:
A. Soil color
B. Cyclic stress ratio and cyclic resistance ratio
C. Vegetation density
D. Surface slope only
FS = CRR/CSR in simplified procedures.
13. A site has a high water table and loose silty sands. Post-earthquake observations
show sand boils and ground cracking. Which phenomenon has most likely occurred?
A. Landslide
B. Liquefaction
C. Subsidence
D. Soil desiccation
Sand boils and ground cracking are classic liquefaction indicators.
2026 – 150 Practice Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales –Instant Download PDF
Complete CEG Study Guide Covering Seismic Hazards, Fault Rupture,
Liquefaction, Slope Stability, Landslides, Expansive & Collapsible Soils,
Groundwater & Drainage, CBC & CGS SP 117A, Alquist-Priolo Act, DWR
Bulletin 74, Site Characterization, Professional Practice & Ethics for BPELSG
CEG Licensure
Section 1 – Seismic & Fault-Rupture Hazards (Q1–25)
1. According to CGS Special Publication 117A, what is the minimum acceptable
factor of safety against liquefaction for critical structures in California?
A. 1.0
B. 1.1
C. 1.3
D. 1.5
SP 117A typically requires FS ≥ 1.3 for liquefaction evaluation in seismic hazard analyses.
2. Under the Alquist-Priolo Earthquake Fault Zoning Act, the primary purpose of the
Earthquake Fault Zones is to:
A. Regulate groundwater extraction
B. Prohibit certain types of construction directly on active fault traces
C. Require seismic retrofitting of all buildings
D. Establish building height limits
The Act focuses on preventing new structures from being built directly on active fault traces.
,3. Which geologic feature is most commonly used to define an “active fault” for
Alquist-Priolo zoning purposes?
A. Any fault with measurable displacement
B. A fault that has had surface displacement within the Holocene
C. Any fault shown on a regional map
D. A fault with recorded instrumental seismicity only
Alquist-Priolo generally uses Holocene activity as the criterion for “active.”
4. A proposed school site lies within an Earthquake Fault Zone. Boring data show a
steeply dipping fault with Holocene offset. What is the most appropriate first
recommendation?
A. Proceed with normal foundation design
B. Conduct a detailed fault-rupture hazard evaluation per CGS guidelines
C. Ignore the fault because it is small
D. Recommend only shallow foundations
Fault-rupture hazard evaluation is required when active faults are present.
5. For a site near a known active fault, which parameter is most critical for estimating
potential fault-rupture displacement at the surface?
A. Soil density
B. Fault slip rate and recurrence interval
C. Groundwater level
D. Vegetation type
Slip rate and recurrence help bound potential displacement and hazard.
6. In seismic hazard evaluations, the term “maximum credible earthquake” (MCE)
primarily refers to:
A. The largest historical earthquake in the region
B. The largest earthquake reasonably capable of occurring on a fault or source
C. The earthquake with the longest duration
D. The earthquake that causes the most damage historically
,MCE is a deterministic estimate of the largest plausible event.
7. A geologic map shows a Quaternary fault that offsets late Pleistocene deposits but
has no Holocene evidence. How is this fault typically classified for Alquist-Priolo
purposes?
A. Active fault
B. Potentially active fault (not in an Earthquake Fault Zone unless designated)
C. Inactive fault
D. Not a fault
Only Holocene-active faults are “active” for Alquist-Priolo zoning.
8. Which of the following site conditions most increases the likelihood of ground
amplification during an earthquake?
A. Hard rock near the surface
B. Thick, soft alluvial deposits over bedrock
C. Shallow bedrock with no overburden
D. Dense, dry sand
Soft soils over stiff layers amplify seismic waves.
9. For a large dam project in California, which seismic design consideration is most
directly influenced by engineering geology input?
A. Architectural style
B. Selection of design ground motions based on fault sources and site conditions
C. Paint color
D. Landscaping plan
Geologists help define fault sources, distances, and site class for ground motion selection.
10. A site is underlain by loose, saturated sands at depths of 5–15 m. The regional
seismicity is moderate to high. Which hazard is most concerning?
, A. Expansive soil
B. Liquefaction
C. Rockfall
D. Karst collapse
Loose, saturated sands in seismic areas are prone to liquefaction.
11. Which investigation method is most appropriate for初步 evaluation of
liquefaction potential at a large site?
A. Only surface mapping
B. Standard Penetration Test (SPT) borings with groundwater monitoring
C. Only remote sensing
D. Test pits only
SPT data (with corrections) are widely used in liquefaction analyses.
12. In a liquefaction analysis, the factor of safety is primarily a function of:
A. Soil color
B. Cyclic stress ratio and cyclic resistance ratio
C. Vegetation density
D. Surface slope only
FS = CRR/CSR in simplified procedures.
13. A site has a high water table and loose silty sands. Post-earthquake observations
show sand boils and ground cracking. Which phenomenon has most likely occurred?
A. Landslide
B. Liquefaction
C. Subsidence
D. Soil desiccation
Sand boils and ground cracking are classic liquefaction indicators.
