Krause & Mahan's Food & Nutrition Care Process Raymond
16th Ed. All Chapters Test Bank Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Comprehensive Exam with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section 1: Part I - Nutrition Assessment (Ch. 1-8) (20 questions)
Q1: The primary site of nutrient absorption in the gastrointestinal tract is the:
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Esophagus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The small intestine, with its extensive surface area from villi and microvilli, is
the primary site of nutrient absorption; the stomach primarily initiates digestion and the
large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes.
Q2: Pepsin is secreted by the stomach and functions to:
A. Digest carbohydrates
B. Begin protein digestion by hydrolyzing peptide bonds in acidic conditions
C. Emulsify fats
D. Neutralize stomach acid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pepsin is a protease secreted as pepsinogen by chief cells and activated by
hydrochloric acid; it initiates protein digestion in the stomach by cleaving peptide bonds
between aromatic amino acids.
Q3: Bile is essential for lipid digestion because it:
A. Hydrolyzes triglycerides
B. Emulsifies fats, increasing the surface area for pancreatic lipase action
C. Synthesizes fatty acids
D. Absorbs cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Bile salts emulsify dietary fats into micelles, dramatically increasing the
surface area available for pancreatic lipase to hydrolyze triglycerides into
monoglycerides and free fatty acids for absorption.
Q4: The hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) is released in response to:
A. Carbohydrates in the duodenum
B. Fats and proteins in the duodenum, stimulating gallbladder contraction and
pancreatic enzyme secretion
C. Only water in the stomach
D. Only fiber in the colon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CCK is released by I-cells in the duodenal mucosa in response to fats and
proteins; it stimulates gallbladder contraction, pancreatic enzyme secretion, and delays
gastric emptying to optimize nutrient digestion.
Q5: The basal metabolic rate (BMR) represents:
A. Total daily energy expenditure
B. The energy required to maintain basic physiological functions at rest in a
thermoneutral environment
C. Only energy used during exercise
D. Only energy used for digestion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: BMR is the energy required to maintain essential physiological functions
(breathing, circulation, temperature regulation, cellular processes) at complete rest in a
fasting, thermoneutral state; it typically comprises 60-75% of total energy expenditure.
Q6: The thermic effect of food (TEF) accounts for approximately:
A. 1-2% of total energy expenditure
B. 5-10% of total energy expenditure
C. 50-60% of total energy expenditure
D. 80-90% of total energy expenditure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: TEF represents the energy expended for digestion, absorption, transport,
metabolism, and storage of nutrients, accounting for approximately 5-10% of total
energy expenditure, with protein having the highest TEF.
,Q7: A patient with a serum albumin of 2.8 g/dL is most likely experiencing:
A. Normal nutritional status
B. Protein-energy malnutrition or inflammatory stress, as albumin is a negative
acute-phase reactant
C. Only dehydration
D. Only vitamin deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albumin below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein depletion or inflammatory stress;
as a negative acute-phase reactant, albumin decreases during inflammation, making it
important to interpret alongside other inflammatory markers (CRP, prealbumin).
Q8: Prealbumin (transthyretin) is preferred over albumin for assessing nutritional status
in acute care because:
A. It is more abundant in the blood
B. It has a shorter half-life (2-3 days vs. 18-20 days), reflecting more recent changes in
protein status
C. It is not affected by inflammation
D. It is only produced in the liver
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prealbumin's short half-life (2-3 days) makes it more responsive to recent
nutritional changes and refeeding than albumin (18-20 days); however, it is also a
negative acute-phase reactant and must be interpreted with inflammatory markers.
Q9: A 24-hour dietary recall is a common nutrition assessment tool that:
A. Requires the patient to record food intake in real-time
B. Asks the patient to recall all foods and beverages consumed in the previous 24 hours,
typically administered by a trained interviewer
C. Only assesses food frequency
D. Only measures biochemical markers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 24-hour dietary recall is a retrospective assessment method where a
trained interviewer guides the patient through recalling all foods, beverages, and
portions consumed in the previous 24 hours using standardized probes.
Q10: The Nutrition Care Process (NCP) consists of four steps:
A. Assessment, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation
, B. Nutrition Assessment, Nutrition Diagnosis, Nutrition Intervention, and Nutrition
Monitoring and Evaluation
C. Only screening and assessment
D. Only diagnosis and treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The standardized Nutrition Care Process (NCP) consists of four interrelated
steps: Nutrition Assessment, Nutrition Diagnosis, Nutrition Intervention, and Nutrition
Monitoring and Evaluation, providing a systematic framework for dietetic practice.
Q11: A nutrition-focused physical examination (NFPE) includes assessment of:
A. Only vital signs
B. Muscle wasting, subcutaneous fat loss, fluid status, functional status, and
micronutrient deficiency signs
C. Only laboratory values
D. Only dietary intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The NFPE assesses anthropometric measures, muscle and fat stores
(temple, clavicle, scapula, ribs, quadriceps, calf), fluid status (edema), functional status
(grip strength, gait), and clinical signs of micronutrient deficiencies.
Q12: Nutritional genomics encompasses:
A. Only genetic testing for food preferences
B. Nutrigenomics (how nutrients affect gene expression) and nutrigenetics (how genetic
variants affect nutrient metabolism and requirements)
C. Only DNA sequencing for ancestry
D. Only food safety testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nutritional genomics includes nutrigenomics (study of how dietary
components influence gene expression and metabolic pathways) and nutrigenetics
(study of how genetic polymorphisms influence individual nutrient requirements and
responses).
Q13: Chronic inflammation is characterized by elevated levels of:
A. Only albumin
B. C-reactive protein (CRP), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
16th Ed. All Chapters Test Bank Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Comprehensive Exam with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section 1: Part I - Nutrition Assessment (Ch. 1-8) (20 questions)
Q1: The primary site of nutrient absorption in the gastrointestinal tract is the:
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Esophagus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The small intestine, with its extensive surface area from villi and microvilli, is
the primary site of nutrient absorption; the stomach primarily initiates digestion and the
large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes.
Q2: Pepsin is secreted by the stomach and functions to:
A. Digest carbohydrates
B. Begin protein digestion by hydrolyzing peptide bonds in acidic conditions
C. Emulsify fats
D. Neutralize stomach acid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pepsin is a protease secreted as pepsinogen by chief cells and activated by
hydrochloric acid; it initiates protein digestion in the stomach by cleaving peptide bonds
between aromatic amino acids.
Q3: Bile is essential for lipid digestion because it:
A. Hydrolyzes triglycerides
B. Emulsifies fats, increasing the surface area for pancreatic lipase action
C. Synthesizes fatty acids
D. Absorbs cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Bile salts emulsify dietary fats into micelles, dramatically increasing the
surface area available for pancreatic lipase to hydrolyze triglycerides into
monoglycerides and free fatty acids for absorption.
Q4: The hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) is released in response to:
A. Carbohydrates in the duodenum
B. Fats and proteins in the duodenum, stimulating gallbladder contraction and
pancreatic enzyme secretion
C. Only water in the stomach
D. Only fiber in the colon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CCK is released by I-cells in the duodenal mucosa in response to fats and
proteins; it stimulates gallbladder contraction, pancreatic enzyme secretion, and delays
gastric emptying to optimize nutrient digestion.
Q5: The basal metabolic rate (BMR) represents:
A. Total daily energy expenditure
B. The energy required to maintain basic physiological functions at rest in a
thermoneutral environment
C. Only energy used during exercise
D. Only energy used for digestion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: BMR is the energy required to maintain essential physiological functions
(breathing, circulation, temperature regulation, cellular processes) at complete rest in a
fasting, thermoneutral state; it typically comprises 60-75% of total energy expenditure.
Q6: The thermic effect of food (TEF) accounts for approximately:
A. 1-2% of total energy expenditure
B. 5-10% of total energy expenditure
C. 50-60% of total energy expenditure
D. 80-90% of total energy expenditure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: TEF represents the energy expended for digestion, absorption, transport,
metabolism, and storage of nutrients, accounting for approximately 5-10% of total
energy expenditure, with protein having the highest TEF.
,Q7: A patient with a serum albumin of 2.8 g/dL is most likely experiencing:
A. Normal nutritional status
B. Protein-energy malnutrition or inflammatory stress, as albumin is a negative
acute-phase reactant
C. Only dehydration
D. Only vitamin deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albumin below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein depletion or inflammatory stress;
as a negative acute-phase reactant, albumin decreases during inflammation, making it
important to interpret alongside other inflammatory markers (CRP, prealbumin).
Q8: Prealbumin (transthyretin) is preferred over albumin for assessing nutritional status
in acute care because:
A. It is more abundant in the blood
B. It has a shorter half-life (2-3 days vs. 18-20 days), reflecting more recent changes in
protein status
C. It is not affected by inflammation
D. It is only produced in the liver
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prealbumin's short half-life (2-3 days) makes it more responsive to recent
nutritional changes and refeeding than albumin (18-20 days); however, it is also a
negative acute-phase reactant and must be interpreted with inflammatory markers.
Q9: A 24-hour dietary recall is a common nutrition assessment tool that:
A. Requires the patient to record food intake in real-time
B. Asks the patient to recall all foods and beverages consumed in the previous 24 hours,
typically administered by a trained interviewer
C. Only assesses food frequency
D. Only measures biochemical markers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 24-hour dietary recall is a retrospective assessment method where a
trained interviewer guides the patient through recalling all foods, beverages, and
portions consumed in the previous 24 hours using standardized probes.
Q10: The Nutrition Care Process (NCP) consists of four steps:
A. Assessment, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation
, B. Nutrition Assessment, Nutrition Diagnosis, Nutrition Intervention, and Nutrition
Monitoring and Evaluation
C. Only screening and assessment
D. Only diagnosis and treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The standardized Nutrition Care Process (NCP) consists of four interrelated
steps: Nutrition Assessment, Nutrition Diagnosis, Nutrition Intervention, and Nutrition
Monitoring and Evaluation, providing a systematic framework for dietetic practice.
Q11: A nutrition-focused physical examination (NFPE) includes assessment of:
A. Only vital signs
B. Muscle wasting, subcutaneous fat loss, fluid status, functional status, and
micronutrient deficiency signs
C. Only laboratory values
D. Only dietary intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The NFPE assesses anthropometric measures, muscle and fat stores
(temple, clavicle, scapula, ribs, quadriceps, calf), fluid status (edema), functional status
(grip strength, gait), and clinical signs of micronutrient deficiencies.
Q12: Nutritional genomics encompasses:
A. Only genetic testing for food preferences
B. Nutrigenomics (how nutrients affect gene expression) and nutrigenetics (how genetic
variants affect nutrient metabolism and requirements)
C. Only DNA sequencing for ancestry
D. Only food safety testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nutritional genomics includes nutrigenomics (study of how dietary
components influence gene expression and metabolic pathways) and nutrigenetics
(study of how genetic polymorphisms influence individual nutrient requirements and
responses).
Q13: Chronic inflammation is characterized by elevated levels of:
A. Only albumin
B. C-reactive protein (CRP), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
