PMHNP | GEORGETTE
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Psychiatric Mental
Health NP Review
Georgette Review | 2026/2027
100 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Psychiatric Assessment & Diagnosis Ethical & Legal Considerations
Psychopharmacology & Treatment Cultural Competence & Diversity
Psychotherapy Modalities
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Assessment & Diagnosis | Q1-Q20 | PMHNP 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
Q1. A 59-year-old patient presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic exhibiting signs of major
depressive disorder. What is the most appropriate action for the PMHNP?
A. Evaluate the duration and severity of the anhedonia and depressed mood.
B. Order a complete neurological MRI panel before completing the interview.
C. Dismiss the symptoms as a normal adjustment reaction to minor stress.
D. Diagnose bipolar disorder immediately due to the extreme fatigue reported.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address major depressive disorder is to evaluate the duration and
severity of the anhedonia and depressed mood. Alternate choices represent outdated practices, ethical
violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
Q2. During an initial psychiatric evaluation, a 56-year-old client requires assessment regarding
bipolar I disorder. Which intervention should the provider prioritize?
A. Conclude the patient has unipolar depression despite the history of manic episodes.
B. Assess for discrete episodes of mania involving grandiosity and decreased need for sleep.
C. Prescribe an SSRI monotherapy without obtaining a thorough mood history.
D. Focus exclusively on the depressive symptoms and ignore the family history of mania.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address bipolar I disorder is to assess for discrete episodes of mania
involving grandiosity and decreased need for sleep. Alternate choices represent outdated practices,
ethical violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
PMHNP - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2
,Q3 Question 3 of 100
Q3. A 57-year-old adult is scheduled for a follow-up visit to discuss ongoing issues with
schizophrenia. Determine the best clinical approach.
A. Disregard the negative symptoms such as flat affect and avolition during the exam.
B. Assume the visual hallucinations are entirely due to recent substance intoxication.
C. Identify the presence of delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech lasting over six months.
D. Diagnose schizoaffective disorder without assessing the timeline of mood symptoms.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address schizophrenia is to identify the presence of delusions,
hallucinations, and disorganized speech lasting over six months. Alternate choices represent outdated
practices, ethical violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
Q4. While reviewing a complex case involving generalized anxiety disorder, a 27-year-old
patient asks the PMHNP for guidance. Choose the correct evidence-based strategy.
A. Diagnose panic disorder despite the absence of acute, spontaneous panic attacks.
B. Recommend immediate hospitalization for mild, manageable daily stress.
C. Attribute the chronic anxiety solely to the patient's recent promotion at work.
D. Explore the pervasive, difficult-to-control worry occurring for more than six months.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address generalized anxiety disorder is to explore the pervasive,
difficult-to-control worry occurring for more than six months. Alternate choices represent outdated
practices, ethical violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
PMHNP - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
Q5. A 34-year-old patient with a complicated psychiatric history needs management involving
major depressive disorder. Which decision represents the highest standard of care?
A. Evaluate the duration and severity of the anhedonia and depressed mood.
B. Diagnose bipolar disorder immediately due to the extreme fatigue reported.
C. Dismiss the symptoms as a normal adjustment reaction to minor stress.
D. Order a complete neurological MRI panel before completing the interview.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address major depressive disorder is to evaluate the duration and
severity of the anhedonia and depressed mood. Alternate choices represent outdated practices, ethical
violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
Q6. A 28-year-old patient presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic exhibiting signs of bipolar I
disorder. What is the most appropriate action for the PMHNP?
A. Prescribe an SSRI monotherapy without obtaining a thorough mood history.
B. Assess for discrete episodes of mania involving grandiosity and decreased need for sleep.
C. Focus exclusively on the depressive symptoms and ignore the family history of mania.
D. Conclude the patient has unipolar depression despite the history of manic episodes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address bipolar I disorder is to assess for discrete episodes of mania
involving grandiosity and decreased need for sleep. Alternate choices represent outdated practices,
ethical violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
PMHNP - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Psychiatric Mental
Health NP Review
Georgette Review | 2026/2027
100 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Psychiatric Assessment & Diagnosis Ethical & Legal Considerations
Psychopharmacology & Treatment Cultural Competence & Diversity
Psychotherapy Modalities
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Assessment & Diagnosis | Q1-Q20 | PMHNP 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
Q1. A 59-year-old patient presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic exhibiting signs of major
depressive disorder. What is the most appropriate action for the PMHNP?
A. Evaluate the duration and severity of the anhedonia and depressed mood.
B. Order a complete neurological MRI panel before completing the interview.
C. Dismiss the symptoms as a normal adjustment reaction to minor stress.
D. Diagnose bipolar disorder immediately due to the extreme fatigue reported.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address major depressive disorder is to evaluate the duration and
severity of the anhedonia and depressed mood. Alternate choices represent outdated practices, ethical
violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
Q2. During an initial psychiatric evaluation, a 56-year-old client requires assessment regarding
bipolar I disorder. Which intervention should the provider prioritize?
A. Conclude the patient has unipolar depression despite the history of manic episodes.
B. Assess for discrete episodes of mania involving grandiosity and decreased need for sleep.
C. Prescribe an SSRI monotherapy without obtaining a thorough mood history.
D. Focus exclusively on the depressive symptoms and ignore the family history of mania.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address bipolar I disorder is to assess for discrete episodes of mania
involving grandiosity and decreased need for sleep. Alternate choices represent outdated practices,
ethical violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
PMHNP - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2
,Q3 Question 3 of 100
Q3. A 57-year-old adult is scheduled for a follow-up visit to discuss ongoing issues with
schizophrenia. Determine the best clinical approach.
A. Disregard the negative symptoms such as flat affect and avolition during the exam.
B. Assume the visual hallucinations are entirely due to recent substance intoxication.
C. Identify the presence of delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech lasting over six months.
D. Diagnose schizoaffective disorder without assessing the timeline of mood symptoms.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address schizophrenia is to identify the presence of delusions,
hallucinations, and disorganized speech lasting over six months. Alternate choices represent outdated
practices, ethical violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
Q4. While reviewing a complex case involving generalized anxiety disorder, a 27-year-old
patient asks the PMHNP for guidance. Choose the correct evidence-based strategy.
A. Diagnose panic disorder despite the absence of acute, spontaneous panic attacks.
B. Recommend immediate hospitalization for mild, manageable daily stress.
C. Attribute the chronic anxiety solely to the patient's recent promotion at work.
D. Explore the pervasive, difficult-to-control worry occurring for more than six months.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address generalized anxiety disorder is to explore the pervasive,
difficult-to-control worry occurring for more than six months. Alternate choices represent outdated
practices, ethical violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
PMHNP - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
Q5. A 34-year-old patient with a complicated psychiatric history needs management involving
major depressive disorder. Which decision represents the highest standard of care?
A. Evaluate the duration and severity of the anhedonia and depressed mood.
B. Diagnose bipolar disorder immediately due to the extreme fatigue reported.
C. Dismiss the symptoms as a normal adjustment reaction to minor stress.
D. Order a complete neurological MRI panel before completing the interview.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address major depressive disorder is to evaluate the duration and
severity of the anhedonia and depressed mood. Alternate choices represent outdated practices, ethical
violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
Q6. A 28-year-old patient presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic exhibiting signs of bipolar I
disorder. What is the most appropriate action for the PMHNP?
A. Prescribe an SSRI monotherapy without obtaining a thorough mood history.
B. Assess for discrete episodes of mania involving grandiosity and decreased need for sleep.
C. Focus exclusively on the depressive symptoms and ignore the family history of mania.
D. Conclude the patient has unipolar depression despite the history of manic episodes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The evidence-based approach to address bipolar I disorder is to assess for discrete episodes of mania
involving grandiosity and decreased need for sleep. Alternate choices represent outdated practices,
ethical violations, or contradict fundamental psychiatric nursing guidelines.
PMHNP - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4
