NSG | 3160
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Health Assessment
Exam 3
NSG3160 | 2026/2027
75 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Neurological Assessment Genitourinary Assessment
Musculoskeletal Assessment Integumentary Assessment
Gastrointestinal Assessment
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Neurological Assessment | Q1-Q15 | NSG3160 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his family who report he has been confused for the past 2 days and has difficulty finding
words. On exam, he follows simple commands but cannot name common objects. Which cranial nerve assessment finding is most
consistent with this presentation?
A. Cranial nerve VII facial weakness on the right side.
B. Cranial nerve XII deviation of the tongue to the left.
C. Cranial nerve II visual field deficits in the right eye.
D. Cranial nerve X absent gag reflex bilaterally.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Difficulty naming objects and word-finding issues suggest expressive aphasia often from left hemisphere stroke affecting Broca's area. Tongue deviation to the left indicates CN XII
involvement on the left side. Facial weakness would be CN VII. Visual fields are CN II. Gag is CN IX/X.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 45-year-old woman presents after a minor motor vehicle collision. She reports neck pain and tingling in her right arm. On
neurological exam, she has 4/5 strength in the right biceps and diminished right biceps reflex. Which spinal nerve root is most likely
affected?
A. C5 spinal nerve root.
B. C6 spinal nerve root.
C. C7 spinal nerve root.
D. C8 spinal nerve root.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
C6 nerve root innervates the biceps muscle and reflex. Weakness and diminished reflex at C6 with arm symptoms after trauma is consistent with C6 radiculopathy. C5 is deltoid,
C7 triceps, C8 hand intrinsics.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 72-year-old man presents with sudden onset of right-sided facial droop and inability to close his right eye. He can raise his right
eyebrow. Which finding helps differentiate this from a central lesion?
A. The patient can raise the right eyebrow.
B. The patient has right arm weakness.
C. The patient has slurred speech.
D. The patient has a history of hypertension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In Bell's palsy (peripheral CN VII lesion), the patient cannot raise the eyebrow on the affected side because the forehead is involved. Central lesions spare the forehead due to
bilateral innervation. Arm weakness and speech suggest central stroke.
NSG3160 — 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 2 of 26
, Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 55-year-old woman is evaluated for headaches. She reports the headache is worst in the morning and improves when she stands
up. She also has nausea. Which finding on fundoscopic exam would support increased intracranial pressure?
A. Bilateral papilledema with blurred disc margins.
B. Arteriovenous nicking in the retinal vessels.
C. Cotton wool spots in the peripheral retina.
D. Pale optic discs with sharp margins.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased ICP and is a key finding. Morning headaches that improve upright and nausea are classic for increased ICP. AV nicking
is hypertension. Cotton wool are diabetes/hypertension. Pale discs suggest optic atrophy.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 30-year-old man presents after a fall from a ladder. He has loss of sensation below the nipple line and flaccid paralysis of the lower
extremities. Which spinal cord level is most likely injured?
A. T4 spinal cord level.
B. L1 spinal cord level.
C. C5 spinal cord level.
D. T10 spinal cord level.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The nipple line corresponds to T4 dermatome. Loss of sensation at that level with paraplegia indicates T4 cord injury. L1 would affect lower legs only. C5 would cause
quadriplegia. T10 is at the umbilicus.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 62-year-old man is evaluated for tremor. He has a resting pill-rolling tremor in the right hand that improves with intentional
movement. He also has bradykinesia and masked facies. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Parkinson's disease.
B. Essential tremor.
C. Cerebellar tremor.
D. Physiological tremor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Resting tremor that diminishes with action, bradykinesia, and masked facies are hallmark of Parkinson's. Essential tremor is action/postural. Cerebellar is intention tremor.
Physiological is fine and stress-related.
Q7 Question 7 of 75
A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden severe headache described as the worst of her life. She has photophobia and neck
stiffness. Non-contrast CT is negative. Which test is the most appropriate next step?
A. Lumbar puncture to evaluate for subarachnoid hemorrhage.
B. MRI brain with contrast.
C. CT angiogram of the head.
D. Electroencephalogram.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Thunderclap headache with meningismus suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage. CT can miss small bleeds; LP is needed to detect xanthochromia or RBCs. MRI is not first for
acute bleed. CTA is for aneurysm after confirmation.
NSG3160 — 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 3 of 26
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Health Assessment
Exam 3
NSG3160 | 2026/2027
75 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Neurological Assessment Genitourinary Assessment
Musculoskeletal Assessment Integumentary Assessment
Gastrointestinal Assessment
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Neurological Assessment | Q1-Q15 | NSG3160 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his family who report he has been confused for the past 2 days and has difficulty finding
words. On exam, he follows simple commands but cannot name common objects. Which cranial nerve assessment finding is most
consistent with this presentation?
A. Cranial nerve VII facial weakness on the right side.
B. Cranial nerve XII deviation of the tongue to the left.
C. Cranial nerve II visual field deficits in the right eye.
D. Cranial nerve X absent gag reflex bilaterally.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Difficulty naming objects and word-finding issues suggest expressive aphasia often from left hemisphere stroke affecting Broca's area. Tongue deviation to the left indicates CN XII
involvement on the left side. Facial weakness would be CN VII. Visual fields are CN II. Gag is CN IX/X.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 45-year-old woman presents after a minor motor vehicle collision. She reports neck pain and tingling in her right arm. On
neurological exam, she has 4/5 strength in the right biceps and diminished right biceps reflex. Which spinal nerve root is most likely
affected?
A. C5 spinal nerve root.
B. C6 spinal nerve root.
C. C7 spinal nerve root.
D. C8 spinal nerve root.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
C6 nerve root innervates the biceps muscle and reflex. Weakness and diminished reflex at C6 with arm symptoms after trauma is consistent with C6 radiculopathy. C5 is deltoid,
C7 triceps, C8 hand intrinsics.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 72-year-old man presents with sudden onset of right-sided facial droop and inability to close his right eye. He can raise his right
eyebrow. Which finding helps differentiate this from a central lesion?
A. The patient can raise the right eyebrow.
B. The patient has right arm weakness.
C. The patient has slurred speech.
D. The patient has a history of hypertension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In Bell's palsy (peripheral CN VII lesion), the patient cannot raise the eyebrow on the affected side because the forehead is involved. Central lesions spare the forehead due to
bilateral innervation. Arm weakness and speech suggest central stroke.
NSG3160 — 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 2 of 26
, Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 55-year-old woman is evaluated for headaches. She reports the headache is worst in the morning and improves when she stands
up. She also has nausea. Which finding on fundoscopic exam would support increased intracranial pressure?
A. Bilateral papilledema with blurred disc margins.
B. Arteriovenous nicking in the retinal vessels.
C. Cotton wool spots in the peripheral retina.
D. Pale optic discs with sharp margins.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased ICP and is a key finding. Morning headaches that improve upright and nausea are classic for increased ICP. AV nicking
is hypertension. Cotton wool are diabetes/hypertension. Pale discs suggest optic atrophy.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 30-year-old man presents after a fall from a ladder. He has loss of sensation below the nipple line and flaccid paralysis of the lower
extremities. Which spinal cord level is most likely injured?
A. T4 spinal cord level.
B. L1 spinal cord level.
C. C5 spinal cord level.
D. T10 spinal cord level.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The nipple line corresponds to T4 dermatome. Loss of sensation at that level with paraplegia indicates T4 cord injury. L1 would affect lower legs only. C5 would cause
quadriplegia. T10 is at the umbilicus.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 62-year-old man is evaluated for tremor. He has a resting pill-rolling tremor in the right hand that improves with intentional
movement. He also has bradykinesia and masked facies. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Parkinson's disease.
B. Essential tremor.
C. Cerebellar tremor.
D. Physiological tremor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Resting tremor that diminishes with action, bradykinesia, and masked facies are hallmark of Parkinson's. Essential tremor is action/postural. Cerebellar is intention tremor.
Physiological is fine and stress-related.
Q7 Question 7 of 75
A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden severe headache described as the worst of her life. She has photophobia and neck
stiffness. Non-contrast CT is negative. Which test is the most appropriate next step?
A. Lumbar puncture to evaluate for subarachnoid hemorrhage.
B. MRI brain with contrast.
C. CT angiogram of the head.
D. Electroencephalogram.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Thunderclap headache with meningismus suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage. CT can miss small bleeds; LP is needed to detect xanthochromia or RBCs. MRI is not first for
acute bleed. CTA is for aneurysm after confirmation.
NSG3160 — 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 75% | Page 3 of 26
