Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers | Virtual ATI Comprehensive
Predictor Exam Prep, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Study Guide, Test Bank,
NCLEX-RN Readiness, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Fundamentals of
Nursing, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric Nursing, Mental Health Nursing,
Leadership & Management, Clinical Judgment, Prioritization, Delegation, Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-operative following
an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following assessment findings should
the nurse report to the provider first?
A. Heart rate 110/min
B. Temperature 37.8°C (100.0°F)
C. Urinary output of 40 mL over the last hour
D. Bowel sounds hypoactive in all four quadrants
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart rate 110/min
Rationale: Tachycardia in a post-operative client is an early sign of potential
hypovolemia or hemorrhage. While fever, low urinary output, and hypoactive bowel
sounds are also concerns, tachycardia is the most sensitive indicator of a potentially
life-threatening complication and should be addressed first.
Question 2: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Loratadine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ibuprofen
Rationale: Ibuprofen is an NSAID that increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding,
especially when combined with the anticoagulant warfarin. NSAIDs inhibit platelet
aggregation and can potentiate bleeding complications. Acetaminophen is generally
safe for pain relief with warfarin but should be limited to moderate doses.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of
the following interventions is the priority?
A. Administer regular insulin IV bolus
B. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV
C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV
D. Administer potassium chloride IV
,CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV
Rationale: In DKA, the priority is fluid resuscitation with 0.9% sodium chloride to
restore intravascular volume, improve tissue perfusion, and correct dehydration. Fluid
replacement enhances glucose excretion and helps lower blood glucose. Insulin
administration should follow fluid resuscitation to prevent hypoglycemia and
hypokalemia.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of a pulmonary
embolism. Which of the following findings is most indicative of this condition?
A. Bradypnea
B. Pleuritic chest pain
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Pleuritic chest pain
Rationale: Pleuritic chest pain, along with dyspnea and tachypnea, is a hallmark sign of
a pulmonary embolism. The pain results from pleural irritation due to a pulmonary
infarct. Hypotension and bradycardia are not typical early signs; patients typically
present with tachycardia and hypoxemia.
Question 5: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following actions is the priority prior to starting the transfusion?
A. Ensure the client has signed a consent form
B. Obtain baseline vital signs
C. Verify the blood product with another licensed nurse
D. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Verify the blood product with another licensed nurse
Rationale: The priority action is to verify the blood product with another licensed nurse
to prevent a fatal transfusion error. Verification includes checking the client's
identification, blood type, Rh factor, and the unit number. Informed consent should be
obtained beforehand but is not the priority at the moment of administration.
Question 6: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for
metoprolol. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
A. "Expect an increase in your energy level."
B. "Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain."
C. "Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate daily."
D. "Discontinue the medication if you develop dizziness."
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. "Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate daily."
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers heart rate and blood pressure. The
client should monitor these parameters daily to detect bradycardia or hypotension. The
medication should not be abruptly discontinued due to risk of rebound hypertension
and angina.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube set to low
intermittent suction. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is the client at
risk for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hyponatremia
Rationale: NG tube suction removes gastric secretions, which are rich in sodium,
potassium, and hydrochloric acid. This can lead to hyponatremia and metabolic
alkalosis. The loss of gastric contents depletes body sodium, leading to dilutional
hyponatremia if fluids are replaced without electrolytes.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client who has a pneumothorax. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hyperresonance on percussion
B. Dullness on percussion
C. Decreased chest wall movement on the unaffected side
D. Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected side
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hyperresonance on percussion
Rationale: Hyperresonance is the expected percussion finding over a pneumothorax
due to the presence of air in the pleural space. Dullness indicates fluid or solid tissue. In
a tension pneumothorax, the trachea deviates to the opposite (unaffected) side.
Question 9: A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is an appropriate long-term goal for this
client?
A. "The client will demonstrate proper insulin injection technique by discharge."
B. "The client will maintain an HbA1c level below 7%."
C. "The client will identify signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia."
D. "The client will verbalize understanding of a diabetic diet."
, CORRECT ANSWER: B. "The client will maintain an HbA1c level below 7%."
Rationale: An HbA1c level below 7% is a standard long-term glycemic control goal
indicating reduced risk of microvascular complications. The other options represent
short-term or intermediate goals related to knowledge and skill acquisition.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and
is experiencing confusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
first?
A. Administer the prescribed antibiotic
B. Assess the client's vital signs
C. Obtain a urine culture
D. Place the client in a room near the nurse's station
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Assess the client's vital signs
Rationale: Confusion in an older adult with a UTI can indicate sepsis. The nurse's first
action should be to obtain vital signs to assess for fever, tachycardia, or hypotension.
This assessment guides the urgency of subsequent interventions.
Question 11: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for a
colonoscopy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "You may have clear liquids up to 4 hours before the procedure."
B. "You will need to follow a low-fiber diet for 3 days before the procedure."
C. "You should take your oral hypoglycemic medication as scheduled on the day of the
procedure."
D. "You will need to take a laxative the night before the procedure."
CORRECT ANSWER: D. "You will need to take a laxative the night before the
procedure."
Rationale: A bowel preparation regimen, including a laxative and clear liquid diet the
day before, is required for a colonoscopy to ensure a clean colon. Oral hypoglycemics
are often withheld to prevent hypoglycemia during fasting. Clear liquids are usually
allowed until 2-4 hours before the procedure.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a
nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions indicates proper nursing care?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 10 degrees
C. Allow the feeding bag to hang for 12 hours
D. Check gastric residual volume every 8 hours