NURS 6531 Final Exam Questions And Correct Verified Answers 2025
Updated Versions 2026 Edition
This patient has a high probability of OSA without significant comorbidities or use of medications that may
cause central sleep apnea, so this test, which has more limited measures than a full PSG, may be performed.
26
Full overnight PSG is used when the cause of sleep apnea is less certain to help determine whether there is a
central cause. The multiple sleep latency test is used to test EDS symptoms.Overnight pulse oximetry is not
sufficiently sensitive to be a reliable screening for sleep apnea.
20
A patient is diagnosed with mild restless leg syndrome (RLS) which occasionally interferes with sleep.Which
initial treatment will be helpful?
a. A continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) devices
b. A dopaminergic agonist
c. Hot baths and exercise
ly
Ju
d. Supplemental iron - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: C
Patients with mild restless leg syndrome (RLS) may benefit from massage, hot baths, exercise,and good
sleep hygiene. CPAP is used for obstructive sleep apnea. Dopaminergic agonists are useful medications but
ng
have a risk of rebound or augmentation of effects.
Supplemental iron is used in patients with low ferritin levels.
si
A 35-year-old patient reports suddenly experiencing an asymmetric smile along with drooping and tearing in
one eye. The patient has a history of a recent viral illness but is otherwise healthy. During the exam, the
ur
provider notes that there is unilateral full-face paralysis on the right side. What is the initial intervention for
this patient?
a. Perform confirmatory diagnostic tests.
N
b. Prescribe oral corticosteroids.
c. Recommend wearing an eye patch.
d. Refer the patient to a neurologist. - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: B
Steroids are highly effective and increase the probability of complete nerve recovery and should be started
within 72 hours of onset. There are no confirmatory diagnostic tests, but other tests may be performed to
rule out certain causes. Patients may be instructed to tape the eye closed at night, but
,2|Page
eye patches are not recommended. A neurology referral is needed only if patients have an atypical
presentation or other comorbid conditions.
What is recommended to prevent ophthalmic complications in patients with Bell's palsy?
a. Acupuncture
b. Lubricating eye drops
26
c. Patching of the eye
d. Sunglasses - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: B
Exposure keratitis from drying of the eye can result in blindness. Lubricating eye drops should be used every 2
20
hours. Acupuncture has not been sufficiently studied. Patching is not recommended.
Protective eyewear to prevent moisture loss is recommended.
Which symptoms may occur with Bell's palsy? (Select all that apply.)
a. Alteration in taste
b.Decreased hearing
ly
Ju
c. Drooling
d. Inability to open the eye
g
e. Tinnitus - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: AA, C,E
Bell's paIsy may cause altered taste, drooling, and tinnitus. It causes increased sensitivity to noises and an inability
in
to close the eye.
s
A patient exhibits visual field defect, ataxia, and dysarthria and complains of a mild headache. A family member
ur
reports that the symptoms began several hours prior. An examination reveals normal range of motion of the
neck. What type of cerebrovascular event is most likely? a. Hemorrhagic stroke
b. Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage
N
c. Ischemic stroke
d. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: C
Patients with ischemic stroke typically do not have headache; if they do, it is milder than with
hemorrhagic stroke. A TIA resolves within minutes.
, 3|Pag
An elderly patient is brought to the emergency department after being found on the floor after a fall.The patient
has unilateral sagging of the face, marked slurring of the speech, and paralysis on one side of the body. The
patient's blood pressure is 220/190 mm Hg. What is the likely treatment for this patient?
a. Carotid endarterectomy
b. Close observation until symptoms resolve
c. Neurosurgical consultation
26
d. Thrombolytic therapy -CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: C
This patient has signs consistent with hemorrhagic stroke and will need consultation with a
20
neurosurgeon to determine whether surgical intervention will be beneficial. Carotid endarterectomy is
performed in patients with carotid stenosis and is used in patients with hemispheric ACVS (TIA).
Patients with TIA may be observed to monitor symptoms. Thrombolytic therapy is given to patients with
ischemic stroke.
ly
A previously healthy 30-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department with signs of stroke.Diagnostic
testing determines an ongoing ischemic cause. The patient's spouse reports that symptoms began approximately
Ju
2 hours prior to transport. What is the recommended treatment?
a. Administration of low-molecular-weight heparin
b. Neurosurgical consultation for possible surgery
ng
c. Observation for complications prior to initiating tPA
d. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) administration - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: D
si
The daughter of an elderly confused patient reports that her parent is having urinary incontinence several
ur
times each day. What will the provider do initially?
a. Obtain a urine sample for urinalysis (UA) and possible culture
b. Order serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen tests
N
c. Perform a bladder scan to determine distention and retention
d. Tell the daughter that this is expected given her mother's age and confusion - CORRECT
ANSWERANS: A
When incontinence occurs, UA is performed initially to exclude hematuria, pyuria, glucosuria, or proteinuria
and possible infection. Serum creatinine and BUN may be performed if renal disease is
, 4|Page
suspected. Bladder scans may be performed if the UAis normal to evaluate physiologic causes. It is not correct to
offer reassurance without ruling out other causes.
The provider is evaluating a patient for potential causes of urinary incontinence and performs a postvoid
residual (PVR) test which yields 30 mL of urine. What is the interpretation of this result?
a. The patient may have overflow incontinence.
26
b. The patient probably has a urinary tract infection (UTI).
c. This is a normal result.
20
d. This represents incomplete emptying. - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: C
A PVR less than 50 mL is considered normal and this result does not indicate any abnormality.
The provider is counseling a patient who has stress incontinence about ways to minimize accidents.What will
the provider suggest initially?
a. Increasing fluid intake to dilute the urine
ly
Ju
b. Referral to a physical therapist
c. Taking pseudoephedrine daily
g
d. Voiding every 2 hours during the day- CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: D
Timed voiding is useful to help minimize stress incontinence and is used initially.Increasing fluid intake will
in
increase symptoms. PT referral may be done if other measures fail to help with exercises to strengthen the pelvic
floor muscles. Pseudoephedrine is useful, but not an initial therapy.
s
ur
An older male patient reports urinary frequency, back pain, and nocturia. A dipstick urinalysis reveals hematuria.
WVhat will the provider do next to evaluate this condition?
a. Order a PSA and perform a digital rectal exam (DRE)
N
b. Refer for a biopsy
c. Refer the patient to a urologist
d. Schedule a transurethral ultrasound (TRUS) - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: A
Patients with symptoms of potential prostate cancer should be screened with PSA and DRE. Referral to a urologist
is the next step even with normal findings, since PSA is occasionally normal. The urologist may order TRUS or
biopsy.
Updated Versions 2026 Edition
This patient has a high probability of OSA without significant comorbidities or use of medications that may
cause central sleep apnea, so this test, which has more limited measures than a full PSG, may be performed.
26
Full overnight PSG is used when the cause of sleep apnea is less certain to help determine whether there is a
central cause. The multiple sleep latency test is used to test EDS symptoms.Overnight pulse oximetry is not
sufficiently sensitive to be a reliable screening for sleep apnea.
20
A patient is diagnosed with mild restless leg syndrome (RLS) which occasionally interferes with sleep.Which
initial treatment will be helpful?
a. A continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) devices
b. A dopaminergic agonist
c. Hot baths and exercise
ly
Ju
d. Supplemental iron - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: C
Patients with mild restless leg syndrome (RLS) may benefit from massage, hot baths, exercise,and good
sleep hygiene. CPAP is used for obstructive sleep apnea. Dopaminergic agonists are useful medications but
ng
have a risk of rebound or augmentation of effects.
Supplemental iron is used in patients with low ferritin levels.
si
A 35-year-old patient reports suddenly experiencing an asymmetric smile along with drooping and tearing in
one eye. The patient has a history of a recent viral illness but is otherwise healthy. During the exam, the
ur
provider notes that there is unilateral full-face paralysis on the right side. What is the initial intervention for
this patient?
a. Perform confirmatory diagnostic tests.
N
b. Prescribe oral corticosteroids.
c. Recommend wearing an eye patch.
d. Refer the patient to a neurologist. - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: B
Steroids are highly effective and increase the probability of complete nerve recovery and should be started
within 72 hours of onset. There are no confirmatory diagnostic tests, but other tests may be performed to
rule out certain causes. Patients may be instructed to tape the eye closed at night, but
,2|Page
eye patches are not recommended. A neurology referral is needed only if patients have an atypical
presentation or other comorbid conditions.
What is recommended to prevent ophthalmic complications in patients with Bell's palsy?
a. Acupuncture
b. Lubricating eye drops
26
c. Patching of the eye
d. Sunglasses - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: B
Exposure keratitis from drying of the eye can result in blindness. Lubricating eye drops should be used every 2
20
hours. Acupuncture has not been sufficiently studied. Patching is not recommended.
Protective eyewear to prevent moisture loss is recommended.
Which symptoms may occur with Bell's palsy? (Select all that apply.)
a. Alteration in taste
b.Decreased hearing
ly
Ju
c. Drooling
d. Inability to open the eye
g
e. Tinnitus - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: AA, C,E
Bell's paIsy may cause altered taste, drooling, and tinnitus. It causes increased sensitivity to noises and an inability
in
to close the eye.
s
A patient exhibits visual field defect, ataxia, and dysarthria and complains of a mild headache. A family member
ur
reports that the symptoms began several hours prior. An examination reveals normal range of motion of the
neck. What type of cerebrovascular event is most likely? a. Hemorrhagic stroke
b. Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage
N
c. Ischemic stroke
d. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: C
Patients with ischemic stroke typically do not have headache; if they do, it is milder than with
hemorrhagic stroke. A TIA resolves within minutes.
, 3|Pag
An elderly patient is brought to the emergency department after being found on the floor after a fall.The patient
has unilateral sagging of the face, marked slurring of the speech, and paralysis on one side of the body. The
patient's blood pressure is 220/190 mm Hg. What is the likely treatment for this patient?
a. Carotid endarterectomy
b. Close observation until symptoms resolve
c. Neurosurgical consultation
26
d. Thrombolytic therapy -CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: C
This patient has signs consistent with hemorrhagic stroke and will need consultation with a
20
neurosurgeon to determine whether surgical intervention will be beneficial. Carotid endarterectomy is
performed in patients with carotid stenosis and is used in patients with hemispheric ACVS (TIA).
Patients with TIA may be observed to monitor symptoms. Thrombolytic therapy is given to patients with
ischemic stroke.
ly
A previously healthy 30-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department with signs of stroke.Diagnostic
testing determines an ongoing ischemic cause. The patient's spouse reports that symptoms began approximately
Ju
2 hours prior to transport. What is the recommended treatment?
a. Administration of low-molecular-weight heparin
b. Neurosurgical consultation for possible surgery
ng
c. Observation for complications prior to initiating tPA
d. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) administration - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: D
si
The daughter of an elderly confused patient reports that her parent is having urinary incontinence several
ur
times each day. What will the provider do initially?
a. Obtain a urine sample for urinalysis (UA) and possible culture
b. Order serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen tests
N
c. Perform a bladder scan to determine distention and retention
d. Tell the daughter that this is expected given her mother's age and confusion - CORRECT
ANSWERANS: A
When incontinence occurs, UA is performed initially to exclude hematuria, pyuria, glucosuria, or proteinuria
and possible infection. Serum creatinine and BUN may be performed if renal disease is
, 4|Page
suspected. Bladder scans may be performed if the UAis normal to evaluate physiologic causes. It is not correct to
offer reassurance without ruling out other causes.
The provider is evaluating a patient for potential causes of urinary incontinence and performs a postvoid
residual (PVR) test which yields 30 mL of urine. What is the interpretation of this result?
a. The patient may have overflow incontinence.
26
b. The patient probably has a urinary tract infection (UTI).
c. This is a normal result.
20
d. This represents incomplete emptying. - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: C
A PVR less than 50 mL is considered normal and this result does not indicate any abnormality.
The provider is counseling a patient who has stress incontinence about ways to minimize accidents.What will
the provider suggest initially?
a. Increasing fluid intake to dilute the urine
ly
Ju
b. Referral to a physical therapist
c. Taking pseudoephedrine daily
g
d. Voiding every 2 hours during the day- CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: D
Timed voiding is useful to help minimize stress incontinence and is used initially.Increasing fluid intake will
in
increase symptoms. PT referral may be done if other measures fail to help with exercises to strengthen the pelvic
floor muscles. Pseudoephedrine is useful, but not an initial therapy.
s
ur
An older male patient reports urinary frequency, back pain, and nocturia. A dipstick urinalysis reveals hematuria.
WVhat will the provider do next to evaluate this condition?
a. Order a PSA and perform a digital rectal exam (DRE)
N
b. Refer for a biopsy
c. Refer the patient to a urologist
d. Schedule a transurethral ultrasound (TRUS) - CORRECT ANSWER-ANS: A
Patients with symptoms of potential prostate cancer should be screened with PSA and DRE. Referral to a urologist
is the next step even with normal findings, since PSA is occasionally normal. The urologist may order TRUS or
biopsy.
