Test Bank For Advanced Physiology and Patho
nb nb nb nb nb nb
physiology, 2nd Edition, By Nancy Tkacs, All C nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
hapters 1-17 LATEST nb nb
Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition
nb nb nb nb nb
Test Bank nb
Instructions: Select the single best answer for each question.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
Unit 1: Cellular and Molecular Foundations
nb nb nb nb nb
1. A 65-year-
nb nb
old patient with a history of atherosclerosis presents with stable angina. Which of the fol
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
lowing best describes the primary mechanism of cellular injury in this patient's myocardi
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
um?
A. Reversible cell injury due to increased intracellular calcium and ATP depletion.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
B. Irreversible cell injury characterized by karyolysis and coagulation necrosis.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
C. Cellular adaptation characterized by hypertrophy of cardiomyocytes without injury.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
D. Ischemic preconditioning that protects the myocardium from further injury.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
Correct Answer: A nb nb
Rationale: In stable angina, myocardial ischemia is temporary and reversible, leading to ATP de
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
pletion, failure of the Na+/K+ pump, and increased intracellular calcium. While this can lead to
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
cell death if prolonged, in stable angina the injury is typically reversible upon reperfusion (Opti
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
on A). Option B describes irreversible injury, which is more typical of an MI. Option C is a long-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
term adaptation to pressure overload, not acute ischemia. Option D is a protective mechanism,
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
not the primary mechanism of injury from the ischemia itself.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
2. A researcher is studying the effect of a novel drug on cellular apoptosis. The drug is f
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ound to activate the intrinsic (mitochondrial) pathway. Which of the following molecular
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
events would the researcher most likely observe?
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Activation of death receptors (e.g., Fas) on the cell surface.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
B. Release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria into the cytosol.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
C. Activation of caspase-8 as the initiator caspase.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
D. A decrease in the ratio of Bax to Bcl-2 proteins.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
,Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: The intrinsic pathway of apoptosis is initiated by mitochondrial stress, leading to inc
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
reased mitochondrial permeability and the release of pro-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
apoptotic factors, including cytochrome c (Option B). Option A and C are characteristic of the e
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
xtrinsic (death receptor) pathway. Option D is incorrect because an increase in the Bax/Bcl-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
2 ratio promotes apoptosis.
nb nb nb
3. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an e
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
xample of which type of cellular adaptation?
nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Metaplasia
nb
B. Dysplasia
nb
C. Hyperplasia
nb
D. Hypertrophy
nb
Correct Answer: D nb nb
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of cells in response to increased workload, lea
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ding to an increase in the size of the organ. The heart, being composed of terminally differenti
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ated muscle cells, responds to chronic pressure overload (hypertension) primarily through hype
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
rtrophy of individual myocytes (Option D). Hyperplasia (Option C) is an increase in cell number.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb n
Metaplasia (Option A) and dysplasia (Option B) are changes in cell type or abnormal growth, re
b nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
spectively.
Unit 2: The Immune System and Inflammation
nb nb nb nb nb nb
4. A 22-year-
nb nb
old patient presents with a fever, sore throat, and swollen cervical lymph nodes. A throa
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
t swab is positive for Streptococcus pyogenes. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is re
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
sponsible for the acute rheumatic fever that may develop weeks later if this infection is
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
untreated?
A. Type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity
nb nb nb nb
B. Type II (antibody-mediated) hypersensitivity
nb nb nb nb
C. Type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity
nb nb nb nb nb
D. Type IV (T-cell mediated) hypersensitivity
nb nb nb nb nb
Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: Acute rheumatic fever is a classic example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction. Anti
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
bodies produced against the M-protein of S. pyogenes cross-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
react with similar antigens on host tissues, particularly in the heart, joints, and brain, leading to
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
antibody-
mediated cell destruction and inflammation (Option B). Type I is anaphylactic (Option A), Type I
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
,II involves circulating immune complexes (Option C), and Type IV is delayed-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
type hypersensitivity mediated by T-cells (Option D).
nb nb nb nb nb nb
5. A patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis is prescribed a TNF-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
alpha inhibitor. The mechanism of action of this drug is to block a pro-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
inflammatory cytokine. Which of the following cells is the primary source of TNF-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
alpha during the inflammatory response?
nb nb nb nb
A. Mast cells
nb nb
B. Macrophages
nb
C. B-lymphocytes
nb
D. Endothelial cells
nb nb
Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: Macrophages are the primary source of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including TNF-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
alpha, IL-1, and IL- nb nb nb
6, during the acute inflammatory response (Option B). While mast cells release histamine and o
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ther mediators (Option A), and endothelial cells facilitate leukocyte adhesion, they are not the
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
primary source of TNF-alpha. nb nb nb
6. A patient with a history of severe allergies is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction aft
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
er eating peanuts. Which of the following mediators is most directly responsible for the
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
severe bronchoconstriction and vasodilation seen in this condition?
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Histamine
nb
B. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)
nb nb nb nb
C. Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)
nb nb
D. Complement proteins C3a and C5a
nb nb nb nb nb
Correct Answer: A nb nb
Rationale: In a Type I hypersensitivity reaction (anaphylaxis), mast cell degranulation releases l
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
arge quantities of histamine and other preformed mediators. Histamine is a potent vasodilator
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
and bronchoconstrictor, responsible for the acute, life-threatening symptoms (Option A). TNF-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
α and IFN-γ are involved in chronic inflammation and T-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
cell responses. Complement anaphylatoxins (C3a, C5a) can also cause mast cell degranulation b
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ut are not the primary mediators of the initial response in a peanut allergy.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
Unit 3: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
nb nb nb nb nb nb
7. A patient with congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide, a loop diuretic. Whic
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
h of the following acid-
nb nb nb nb
, base disturbances is this patient at the highest risk for developing?
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Metabolic acidosis
nb nb
B. Metabolic alkalosis
nb nb
C. Respiratory acidosis
nb nb
D. Respiratory alkalosis
nb nb
Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide inhibit the Na+/K+/2Cl-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This leads to increased delivery
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb n
bof sodium and water to the distal nephron, which promotes secretion of both K+ and H+ ions
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
into the urine. The loss of hydrogen ions results in a metabolic alkalosis (Option B).
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
8. A 70-year-
nb nb
old patient with chronic kidney disease (Stage 4) presents with fatigue, confusion, and d
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
eep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). His arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb n
7.25, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3-
b nb nb nb nb
12 mEq/L. Which of the following best describes this patient's acid-base status?
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
nb nb nb
B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
nb nb nb
C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
nb nb nb
D. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
nb nb nb
Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: The primary disturbance is a low pH (acidemia) and a low HCO3-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
(metabolic acidosis). The PaCO2 is below the normal range (35-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
45 mmHg), indicating a compensatory respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilation) in response to the
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
metabolic acidosis. Since the pH is still below 7.35, the compensation is partial, but the conditi
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
on is termed "compensated metabolic acidosis" (Option B). "Uncompensated" would mean the
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
PaCO2 was normal. nb nb
9. A patient is admitted with severe vomiting over the past 3 days. Laboratory results re
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
veal a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which of the following ECG changes would b
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
e expected in this patient?
nb nb nb nb
A. Tall, peaked T-waves
nb nb nb
B. Prolonged PR interval and widened QRS complex
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
C. Flattened T-waves and prominent U-waves
nb nb nb nb nb
D. Shortened QT interval
nb nb nb
Correct Answer: C nb nb
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low serum potassium) is characterized by ECG changes including ST-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
nb nb nb nb nb nb
physiology, 2nd Edition, By Nancy Tkacs, All C nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
hapters 1-17 LATEST nb nb
Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition
nb nb nb nb nb
Test Bank nb
Instructions: Select the single best answer for each question.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
Unit 1: Cellular and Molecular Foundations
nb nb nb nb nb
1. A 65-year-
nb nb
old patient with a history of atherosclerosis presents with stable angina. Which of the fol
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
lowing best describes the primary mechanism of cellular injury in this patient's myocardi
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
um?
A. Reversible cell injury due to increased intracellular calcium and ATP depletion.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
B. Irreversible cell injury characterized by karyolysis and coagulation necrosis.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
C. Cellular adaptation characterized by hypertrophy of cardiomyocytes without injury.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
D. Ischemic preconditioning that protects the myocardium from further injury.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
Correct Answer: A nb nb
Rationale: In stable angina, myocardial ischemia is temporary and reversible, leading to ATP de
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
pletion, failure of the Na+/K+ pump, and increased intracellular calcium. While this can lead to
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
cell death if prolonged, in stable angina the injury is typically reversible upon reperfusion (Opti
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
on A). Option B describes irreversible injury, which is more typical of an MI. Option C is a long-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
term adaptation to pressure overload, not acute ischemia. Option D is a protective mechanism,
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
not the primary mechanism of injury from the ischemia itself.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
2. A researcher is studying the effect of a novel drug on cellular apoptosis. The drug is f
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ound to activate the intrinsic (mitochondrial) pathway. Which of the following molecular
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
events would the researcher most likely observe?
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Activation of death receptors (e.g., Fas) on the cell surface.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
B. Release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria into the cytosol.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
C. Activation of caspase-8 as the initiator caspase.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
D. A decrease in the ratio of Bax to Bcl-2 proteins.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
,Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: The intrinsic pathway of apoptosis is initiated by mitochondrial stress, leading to inc
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
reased mitochondrial permeability and the release of pro-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
apoptotic factors, including cytochrome c (Option B). Option A and C are characteristic of the e
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
xtrinsic (death receptor) pathway. Option D is incorrect because an increase in the Bax/Bcl-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
2 ratio promotes apoptosis.
nb nb nb
3. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an e
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
xample of which type of cellular adaptation?
nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Metaplasia
nb
B. Dysplasia
nb
C. Hyperplasia
nb
D. Hypertrophy
nb
Correct Answer: D nb nb
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of cells in response to increased workload, lea
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ding to an increase in the size of the organ. The heart, being composed of terminally differenti
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ated muscle cells, responds to chronic pressure overload (hypertension) primarily through hype
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
rtrophy of individual myocytes (Option D). Hyperplasia (Option C) is an increase in cell number.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb n
Metaplasia (Option A) and dysplasia (Option B) are changes in cell type or abnormal growth, re
b nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
spectively.
Unit 2: The Immune System and Inflammation
nb nb nb nb nb nb
4. A 22-year-
nb nb
old patient presents with a fever, sore throat, and swollen cervical lymph nodes. A throa
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
t swab is positive for Streptococcus pyogenes. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is re
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
sponsible for the acute rheumatic fever that may develop weeks later if this infection is
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
untreated?
A. Type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity
nb nb nb nb
B. Type II (antibody-mediated) hypersensitivity
nb nb nb nb
C. Type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity
nb nb nb nb nb
D. Type IV (T-cell mediated) hypersensitivity
nb nb nb nb nb
Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: Acute rheumatic fever is a classic example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction. Anti
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
bodies produced against the M-protein of S. pyogenes cross-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
react with similar antigens on host tissues, particularly in the heart, joints, and brain, leading to
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
antibody-
mediated cell destruction and inflammation (Option B). Type I is anaphylactic (Option A), Type I
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
,II involves circulating immune complexes (Option C), and Type IV is delayed-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
type hypersensitivity mediated by T-cells (Option D).
nb nb nb nb nb nb
5. A patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis is prescribed a TNF-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
alpha inhibitor. The mechanism of action of this drug is to block a pro-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
inflammatory cytokine. Which of the following cells is the primary source of TNF-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
alpha during the inflammatory response?
nb nb nb nb
A. Mast cells
nb nb
B. Macrophages
nb
C. B-lymphocytes
nb
D. Endothelial cells
nb nb
Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: Macrophages are the primary source of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including TNF-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
alpha, IL-1, and IL- nb nb nb
6, during the acute inflammatory response (Option B). While mast cells release histamine and o
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ther mediators (Option A), and endothelial cells facilitate leukocyte adhesion, they are not the
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
primary source of TNF-alpha. nb nb nb
6. A patient with a history of severe allergies is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction aft
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
er eating peanuts. Which of the following mediators is most directly responsible for the
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
severe bronchoconstriction and vasodilation seen in this condition?
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Histamine
nb
B. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)
nb nb nb nb
C. Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)
nb nb
D. Complement proteins C3a and C5a
nb nb nb nb nb
Correct Answer: A nb nb
Rationale: In a Type I hypersensitivity reaction (anaphylaxis), mast cell degranulation releases l
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
arge quantities of histamine and other preformed mediators. Histamine is a potent vasodilator
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
and bronchoconstrictor, responsible for the acute, life-threatening symptoms (Option A). TNF-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
α and IFN-γ are involved in chronic inflammation and T-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
cell responses. Complement anaphylatoxins (C3a, C5a) can also cause mast cell degranulation b
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
ut are not the primary mediators of the initial response in a peanut allergy.
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
Unit 3: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
nb nb nb nb nb nb
7. A patient with congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide, a loop diuretic. Whic
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
h of the following acid-
nb nb nb nb
, base disturbances is this patient at the highest risk for developing?
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Metabolic acidosis
nb nb
B. Metabolic alkalosis
nb nb
C. Respiratory acidosis
nb nb
D. Respiratory alkalosis
nb nb
Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide inhibit the Na+/K+/2Cl-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This leads to increased delivery
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb n
bof sodium and water to the distal nephron, which promotes secretion of both K+ and H+ ions
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
into the urine. The loss of hydrogen ions results in a metabolic alkalosis (Option B).
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
8. A 70-year-
nb nb
old patient with chronic kidney disease (Stage 4) presents with fatigue, confusion, and d
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
eep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). His arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb n
7.25, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3-
b nb nb nb nb
12 mEq/L. Which of the following best describes this patient's acid-base status?
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
nb nb nb
B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
nb nb nb
C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
nb nb nb
D. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
nb nb nb
Correct Answer: B nb nb
Rationale: The primary disturbance is a low pH (acidemia) and a low HCO3-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
(metabolic acidosis). The PaCO2 is below the normal range (35-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
45 mmHg), indicating a compensatory respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilation) in response to the
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
metabolic acidosis. Since the pH is still below 7.35, the compensation is partial, but the conditi
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
on is termed "compensated metabolic acidosis" (Option B). "Uncompensated" would mean the
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
PaCO2 was normal. nb nb
9. A patient is admitted with severe vomiting over the past 3 days. Laboratory results re
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
veal a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which of the following ECG changes would b
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
e expected in this patient?
nb nb nb nb
A. Tall, peaked T-waves
nb nb nb
B. Prolonged PR interval and widened QRS complex
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
C. Flattened T-waves and prominent U-waves
nb nb nb nb nb
D. Shortened QT interval
nb nb nb
Correct Answer: C nb nb
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low serum potassium) is characterized by ECG changes including ST-
nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb nb
