with Verified Answers & Rationales – Complete Study
Guide | LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR.pdf
Exam Overview:
The FISDAP Paramedic Final Exam is a comprehensive assessment used by paramedic
programs to evaluate readiness for the NREMT cognitive exam. It covers airway
management, cardiology, trauma, medical emergencies, obstetrics/pediatrics, and EMS
operations. Multiple exam versions exist, with question counts ranging from 150-200.
EXAM FORMAT
Feature Detail
Total Questions 150 (varies by version)
Format Multiple-choice, scenario-based
Content Areas Airway, Cardiology, Trauma, Medical, OB/Peds, Operations
Scoring Pass/Fail with category breakdown
SECTION 1: AIRWAY & RESPIRATORY MANAGEMENT (Questions 1-25)
Q1. A 30-year-old climber is experiencing severe shortness of breath after reaching
an elevation of 12,000 feet. The patient is very anxious and has rales noted to all
quadrants but is otherwise healthy. He is not accustomed to high altitudes. What
should you do?
,A) Administer oxygen while descending to a lower altitude
B) Coach the patient to slow his respirations
C) Apply CPAP while the patient adapts to the elevations
D) Evacuate the patient to a hyperbaric chamber
Answer: A) Administer oxygen while descending to a lower altitude
Rationale: The patient is experiencing high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE). The
combination of high altitude, rales (fluid in the lungs), and shortness of breath in a non-
acclimated climber indicates HAPE. The priority is oxygen administration and immediate
descent to a lower altitude to reduce hypoxia and pulmonary artery pressure .
Q2. You are asked to set up a patient treatment area after a box labeled "radioactive"
was found unattended in a park. Which of the following would be the best location?
A) An open area in the park
B) The Emergency Operations Center
C) The Incident Command Center
D) A building in the park
Answer: D) A building in the park
Rationale: In a hazardous materials incident involving radioactive materials, the patient
treatment area should be established in a location that provides shielding from radiation. A
building offers better protection than an open area .
Q3. What is the most common cause of status epilepticus in adults?
,A) Alcohol withdrawal
B) Sudden elevation in body temperature
C) Failure to take prescribed medications
D) Recent history of head trauma
Answer: C) Failure to take prescribed medications
Rationale: Medication non-adherence is the leading cause of status epilepticus in adults
with epilepsy. Other causes include alcohol withdrawal, head trauma, and metabolic
disturbances, but failure to take anti-epileptic medications remains the most common
precipitating factor .
Q4. What is the minimum SpO2 that ensures adequate oxygenation for most
patients?
A) 85%
B) 90%
C) 94%
D) 98%
Answer: C) 94%
Rationale: The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve's flat portion starts around 90%, but 94%
provides a safety margin. Below 90% is hypoxemia .
Q5. A patient has stridor after extubation. This indicates:
A) Upper airway obstruction at the vocal cords
B) Lower airway bronchospasm
, C) Pulmonary edema
D) Pneumothorax
Answer: A) Upper airway obstruction at the vocal cords
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, inspiratory sound caused by turbulent airflow through a
narrowed upper airway (larynx/trachea). It is a post-extubation emergency .
Q6. A 45-year-old male is found unresponsive with gurgling respirations. What is
your FIRST action?
A) Insert an OPA
B) Suction the oropharynx
C) Bag-valve-mask ventilations
D) Nasotracheal intubation
Answer: B) Suction the oropharynx
Rationale: Gurgling indicates fluid in the airway. Suctioning must precede any airway
adjunct or ventilation to prevent aspiration. Airway first: clear before securing .
Q7. First responders are treating an apneic adult female. You notice that they are
applying frequent long ventilations with an oxygen resuscitator. What effects will
their actions create?
A) Increased capillary elasticity
B) Increased venous return
C) Decreased venous return
D) Decreased intracranial pressure