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NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2 Test Bank | UTA | Verified Questions and Answers | 100% Correct | A+ Graded (2026–2027)

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NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2 Test Bank | UTA | Verified Questions and Answers | 100% Correct | A+ Graded (2026–2027)

Institution
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology
Course
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology

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NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2 Test
Bank | UTA | Verified Questions and Answers |
100% Correct | A+ Graded (2026–2027)




Question 1
A 12-year-old child has extensive psoriatic lesions covering his back. Which topical
therapy applied with continuous use has the potential to prevent him from reaching his
full adult height?
 Salicylic acid
 Clobetasol propionate
 Calcipotriene
 Calcitriol

, Correct Answer: Clobetasol propionate
Rationale: Excessive use of potent corticosteroids applied to a large surface area can
cause systemic adverse effects, including hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis
suppression and growth retardation.




Question 2
A 32-year-old woman with papulopustular rosacea prefers to use a topical agent, rather
than an oral agent, to treat her lesions. Which of the following agents is the most
appropriate recommendation?
 Brimonidine
 Doxycycline
 Oxymetazoline
 Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Rationale: Metronidazole is a topical antibacterial agent used first-line for
papulopustular rosacea. It is believed to work through local anti-inflammatory or
immunosuppressive effects. While oral doxycycline is also effective for rosacea, it is an
oral systemic agent rather than a topical option. Brimonidine and oxymetazoline target
persistent facial erythema (redness) rather than the inflammatory papules and pustules.




Question 3
A 24-year-old male presents with severe plaque psoriasis covering roughly 15% of his
body surface area. The provider decides to initiate a systemic biologic response
modifier that inhibits tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-\(\alpha \)). Before administering
the first dose, which screening evaluation is absolute and mandatory?
 Serum creatinine and urea nitrogen clearance
 Latent tuberculosis screening (IGRA or TST)
 Baseline pulmonary function testing
 Continuous 12-lead electrocardiogram evaluation
Correct Answer: Latent tuberculosis screening (IGRA or TST)
Rationale: TNF-\(\alpha \) plays a key operational role in maintaining granulomas that
sequester Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Blocking this cytokine can lead to rapid
reactivation of latent tuberculosis into active, life-threatening disseminated disease.

, Question 4
A 66-year-old male with chronic open-angle glaucoma is prescribed latanoprost
ophthalmic drops daily. Which structural or cosmetic side effect must the patient be
thoroughly counseled on prior to starting this drug?
 Irreversible iris hyperpigmentation
 Permanent pupil dilation (mydriasis)
 Severe systemic orthostatic hypotension
 Transient corneal opacification
Correct Answer: Irreversible iris hyperpigmentation
Rationale: Prostaglandin analogs like latanoprost increase melanin content in iris
stromal melanocytes. This often results in a permanent turning of light-colored (blue,
green, hazel) eyes to brown. It also promotes reversible eyelash lengthening and
periocular skin hyperpigmentation.




Question 5
A 21-year-old female patient with severe, scarring nodulocystic acne is being evaluated
for systemic isotretinoin therapy. Which safety management registry and protocol must
be satisfied before a prescription can be legally dispensed?
 The DEA Controlled Substance Monitoring Network
 The iPLEDGE risk evaluation and mitigation strategy (REMS)
 Baseline renal biopsy and clearance registration
 Weekly serum drug concentration therapeutic indexing
Correct Answer: The iPLEDGE risk evaluation and mitigation strategy (REMS)
Rationale: Isotretinoin is a highly potent teratogen capable of causing devastating
congenital malformations. The mandatory iPLEDGE program requires strict multi-step
verification of dual effective contraception methods and successive negative monthly
pregnancy tests.




Question 6
A patient with chronic moderate-to-severe atopic dermatitis on sensitive areas of the
face is prescribed topical tacrolimus 0.03% ointment. What is the molecular mechanism
of action of this non-steroidal immunosuppressive agent?
 Competitive antagonism of peripheral H1 histamine receptors
 Inhibition of calcineurin, preventing T-cell activation and cytokine transcription
 Chemical destruction of hyperkeratotic epidermal cell matrices
 Downregulation of alpha-adrenergic smooth muscle responses
Correct Answer: Inhibition of calcineurin, preventing T-cell activation and cytokine
transcription

, Rationale: Tacrolimus binds to intracellular immunophilins to inhibit calcineurin. This
stops the dephosphorylation and nuclear translocation of nuclear factor of activated T-
cells (NFAT), mitigating inflammation without causing the skin atrophy seen with topical
steroids.




Question 7
A 54-year-old male presents with a severe acute gouty flare localized to his right first
metatarsophalangeal joint. His laboratory evaluation reveals a baseline stage 4 chronic
kidney disease (eGFR 22 mL/min). Which of the following represents the safest acute
abortive treatment selection?
 High-dose oral indomethacin
 Intravenous or high-dose oral colchicine
 A short, tapering course of systemic corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone)
 Immediate high-dose initiation of allopurinol
Correct Answer: A short, tapering course of systemic corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone)
Rationale: High-dose NSAIDs are strictly contraindicated in advanced renal impairment
due to the risk of precipitating acute-on-chronic kidney injury. Colchicine builds up to
toxic levels when renal clearance is severely reduced, making systemic or intra-articular
corticosteroids the preferred alternative for acute inflammation. Allopurinol is an urban
myth for acute flares; it lowers uric acid long-term but should not be initiated or scaled
up during an active acute attack.




Question 8
A 28-year-old pregnant patient requires localized management for a cutaneous
dermatophyte infection (tinea corporis). Which topical antifungal drug choice is
classified as highly safe (Category B) for use across all trimesters?
 Topical clotrimazole
 Oral griseofulvin
 Topical selenium sulfide
 Oral ketoconazole
Correct Answer: Topical clotrimazole
Rationale: Topical azoles such as clotrimazole and miconazole have negligible
systemic absorption when applied directly to intact skin surfaces, making them the
preferred first-line agents for superficial fungal infections in pregnant individuals.

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