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ATI FINAL LPN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR ACTUAL EXAM PREP 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ALREADY A GRADED WITH EXPERT FEEDBACK |NEW AND REVISED

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ATI FINAL LPN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR ACTUAL EXAM PREP 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ALREADY A GRADED WITH EXPERT FEEDBACK |NEW AND REVISED

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ATI FINAL LPN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
ACTUAL EXAM PREP 2026 ALL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES ALREADY A GRADED WITH
EXPERT FEEDBACK |NEW AND REVISED



1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following
abdominal surgery. The client reports pain at the incision site rated 7 on
a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
first?
A. Administer the prescribed PRN analgesic
B. Reposition the client to a more comfortable position
C. Assess the incision site for signs of infection or dehiscence
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to assess the
client's pain and the surgical site for any complications such as
infection, dehiscence, or hematoma. The nursing process prioritizes
assessment before intervention. After assessment, the nurse can then
provide appropriate pain relief and notify the provider if needed.


2. A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL IV
to infuse over 8 hours. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15
gtt/mL. The nurse should set the IV flow rate to deliver how many drops
per minute? (Round to the nearest whole number)
A. 21 gtt/min
B. 25 gtt/min

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C. 31 gtt/min
D. 42 gtt/min
Rationale: The formula is: (Volume in mL × Drop factor) ÷ Time in
minutes = (1000 mL × 15 gtt/mL) ÷ 480 minutes = 31.25 ≈ 31 gtt/min.
The infusion time must be converted to minutes (8 hours × 60 minutes
= 480 minutes).


3. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who becomes agitated and
attempts to remove their IV line. Which of the following interventions is
most appropriate?
A. Apply wrist restraints to prevent IV removal
B. Ask the provider to order sedation
C. Tell the client to stop the behavior
D. Redirect the client's attention to a different activity
Rationale: Redirection is a non-pharmacological intervention that is
the least restrictive and most appropriate for managing agitation in
clients with dementia. Restraints should be avoided if possible. Telling
the client to stop is ineffective as the client may not understand.


4. A client who is receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea. Which
of the following is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed
B. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals
C. Provide mouth care before meals
D. Assess the client's nausea level and related symptoms
Rationale: Assessment is the first step of the nursing process. The
nurse should assess the client's nausea level, triggers, and any
associated symptoms before implementing interventions.

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5. A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is in Buck's traction.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Remove the traction to provide skin care
B. Maintain correct body alignment and check the weights
C. Position the client flat in bed
D. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position
Rationale: Buck's traction is applied to immobilize and reduce
fractures of the lower extremity. The nurse should ensure correct body
alignment, check that the weights are hanging freely and not resting
on the floor, and check the traction apparatus regularly. The traction
should not be removed without a provider's order.


6. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding through a
nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
prior to initiating the feeding?
A. Flush the tube with 50 mL of air
B. Aspirate 10 mL of gastric contents and discard
C. Check the placement of the tube by aspirating gastric contents
and measuring pH
D. Warm the formula to body temperature
Rationale: The nurse must verify NG tube placement before each
feeding by aspirating gastric contents and checking the pH (should be
between 0-4 for gastric placement). Auscultation of air is no longer
recommended as the sole method for confirming placement due to
inaccuracy.


7. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should
monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

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A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes loss of potassium
in the urine. The nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, which can
lead to cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should also monitor for
hypovolemia, hypotension, and ototoxicity.


8. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting on a low-
sodium diet. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates
an understanding of the teaching?
A. Canned soup
B. Pickles
C. Fresh chicken breast
D. Processed cheese
Rationale: Fresh chicken breast is a low-sodium food choice. Canned
soup, pickles, and processed cheese are high in sodium. Clients on a
low-sodium diet should choose fresh or frozen foods without added
salt.


9. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. The
nurse should include which of the following in the client teaching?
A. Take the medication with food to avoid hypoglycemia
B. Report any unusual muscle pain or weakness to the provider
C. The medication may cause weight gain
D. Monitor blood glucose only once daily
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, a rare but serious
complication. Clients should report signs of lactic acidosis such as

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